"Stadtaffe" entered the German Albums Chart at #4 and reached its peak position #1, which it reached on 4 non-consecutive occasions.

It managed to stay in the Top Ten for a total of 41 weeks and it stayed in the Top 50 for 92 weeks.

Stadtaffe () is the first solo album by German musician Peter Fox. Released 26 September 2008, the standard version contains twelve tracks, four of which have been released as singles. Fox performed the Single "Schwarz zu Blau" at the Bundesvision Song Contest 2009 in Potsdam while representing Berlin, and won, becoming the first person to win the contest twice (his first win coming in 2006 as a member of the band Seeed). The album was certified 6× Platin for shipping 1.2 million copies in Germany and is the 3rd most downloaded album of all time there, selling 100,000 copies just due to downloads.

In addition to the drop in peak production figures, earlier detection can be achieved. Sentinel birds can be placed in the flock and tested for haemagglutination.

Flock hygiene and minimization of inter-species contact can reduce the incidence of the disease.

There are 3 possible ways to test the fetal antigen status. Free Cell DNA, Amniocentesis, and Chorionic Villus Sampling. Of the three, CVS is no longer used due to risk of worsening the maternal antibody response. Once antigen status has been determined, assessment may be done with MCA scans.

- Free Cell DNA can be run on certain antigens. Blood is taken from the mother, and using PCR, can detect the K, C, c, D, and E alleles of fetal DNA. This blood test is non-invasive to the fetus and is an easy way of checking antigen status and risk of HDN. Testing has proven very accurate and is routinely done in the UK at the International Blood Group Reference Laboratory in Bristol. Sanequin laboratory in Amsterdam, Netherlands also performs this test. For US patients, blood may be sent to either of the labs. In the US, Sensigene is done by Sequenome to determine fetal D status. Sequenome does not accept insurance in the US, but US and Canadian patients have had insurance cover the testing done overseas.

- Amniocentesis is another recommended method for testing antigen status and risk for HDN. Fetal antigen status can be tested as early as 15 weeks by PCR of fetal cells.

- CVS is possible as well to test fetal antigen status but is not recommended. CVS carries a higher risk of fetal maternal hemorrhage and can raise antibody titers, potentially worsening the antibody effect.

Blood is generally drawn from the father to help determine fetal antigen status. If he is homozygous for the antigen, there is a 100% chance of all offspring in the pairing to be positive for the antigen and at risk for HDN. If he is heterozygous, there is a 50% chance of offspring to be positive for the antigen. This test can help with knowledge for the current baby, as well as aid in the decision about future pregnancies. With RhD, the test is called the RhD genotype. With RhCE, and Kell antigen it is called an antigen phenotype.

There are several intervention options available in early, mid and late pregnancies.

Blood is generally drawn from the father to help determine fetal antigen status. If he is homozygous for the antigen, there is a 100% chance of all offspring in the pairing to be positive for the antigen and at risk for HDN. If he is heterozygous, there is a 50% chance of offspring to be positive for the antigen. This test can help with knowledge for the current baby, as well as aid in the decision about future pregnancies. With RhD, the test is called the RhD genotype. With RhCE, and Kell antigen it is called an antigen phenotype.

There are 3 possible ways to test the fetal antigen status. Free Cell DNA, Amniocentesis, and Chorionic Villus Sampling. Of the three, CVS is no longer used due to risk of worsening the maternal antibody response. Once antigen status has been determined, assessment may be done with MCA scans.

- Free Cell DNA can be run on certain antigens. Blood is taken from the mother, and using PCR, can detect the K, C, c, D, and E alleles of fetal DNA. This blood test is non-invasive to the fetus and is an easy way of checking antigen status and risk of HDN. Testing has proven very accurate and is routinely done in the UK at the International Blood Group Reference Laboratory in Bristol. Sanequin laboratory in Amsterdam, Netherlands also performs this test. For US patients, blood may be sent to either of the labs. In the US, Sensigene is done by Sequenome to determine fetal D status. Sequenome does not accept insurance in the US, but US and Canadian patients have had insurance cover the testing done overseas.

- Amniocentesis is another recommended method for testing antigen status and risk for HDN. Fetal antigen status can be tested as early as 15 weeks by PCR of fetal cells.

- CVS is possible as well to test fetal antigen status but is not recommended. CVS carries a higher risk of fetal maternal hemorrhage and can raise antibody titers, potentially worsening the antibody effect.

Blood is generally drawn from the father to help determine fetal antigen status. If he is homozygous for the antigen, there is a 100% chance of all offspring in the pairing to be positive for the antigen and at risk for HDN. If he is heterozygous, there is a 50% chance of offspring to be positive for the antigen. This test can help with knowledge for the current baby, as well as aid in the decision about future pregnancies. With RhD, the test is called the RhD genotype. With RhCE, and Kell antigen it is called an antigen phenotype.

Because the variability of this disease is so great and the way that it reveals itself could be multi-faceted; once diagnosed, a multidisciplinary team is recommended to treat the disease and should include a craniofacial surgeon, ophthalmologist, pediatrician, pediatric urologist, cardiologist, pulmonologist, speech pathologist, and a medical geneticist. Several important steps must be followed, as well.

- Past medical history

- Physical examination with special attention to size and measurements of facial features, palate, heart, genitourinary system and lower respiratory system

- Eye evaluation

- Hypospadias assessment by urologist

- Laryngoscopy and chest x-ray for difficulties with breathing/swallowing

- Cleft lip/palate assessment by craniofacial surgeon

- Assessment of standard age developmental and intellectual abilities

- Anal position assessment

- Echocardiogram

- Cranial imaging

Many surgical repairs may be needed, as assessed by professionals. Furthermore, special education therapies and psychoemotional therapies may be required, as well. In some cases, antireflux drugs can be prescribed until risk of breathing and swallowing disorders are removed. Genetic counseling is highly advised to help explain who else in the family may be at risk for the disease and to help guide family planning decisions in the future.

Because of its wide variability in which defects will occur, there is no known mortality rate specifically for the disease. However, the leading cause of death for people with Opitz G/BBB syndrome is due to infant death caused by aspiration due to esophageal, pharyngeal or laryngeal defects.

Fortunately, to date there are no factors that can increase the expression of symptoms of this disease. All abnormalities and symptoms are present at birth.

Since the symptoms caused by this disease are present at birth, there is no “cure.” The best cure that scientists are researching is awareness and genetic testing to determine risk factors and increase knowledgeable family planning. Prevention is the only option at this point in time for a cure.

Diagnosis is made on the basis of the association of gastro-oesophageal reflux with the characteristic movement disorder. Neurological examination is usually normal. Misdiagnosis as benign infantile spasms or epileptic seizures is common, particularly where clear signs or symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux are not apparent. Early diagnosis is critical, as treatment is simple and leads to prompt resolution of the movement disorder.

Prevention measures include avoidance of the irritant through its removal from the workplace or through technical shielding by the use of potent irritants in closed systems or automation, irritant replacement or removal and personal protection of the workers.

In order to better prevent and control occupational disease, most countries revise and update their related laws, most of them greatly increasing the penalties in case of breaches of the occupational disease laws. Occupational disease prevention, in general legally regulated, is part of good supply chain management and enables companies to design and ensure supply chain social compliance schemes as well as monitor their implementation to identify and prevent occupational disease hazards.

The first case of eosinophilia–myalgia syndrome was reported to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) in November 1989, although some cases had occurred as early as 2–3 years before this. In total, more than 1,500 cases of EMS were reported to the CDC, as well as at least 37 EMS-associated deaths. After preliminary investigation revealed that the outbreak was linked to intake of tryptophan, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recalled tryptophan supplements in 1989 and banned most public sales in 1990, with other countries following suit.

Genetic testing may be available for mutations in the FGDY1 gene. Genetic counseling is indicated for individuals or families who may carry this condition, as there are overlapping features with fetal alcohol syndrome.

Other examinations or tests can help with diagnosis. These can include:

detailed family history

- conducting a detailed physical examination to document morphological features

- testing for genetic defect in FGDY1

- x-rays can identify skeletal abnormalities

- echo cardiogram can screen for heart abnormalities

- CT scan of the brain for cystic development

- X-ray of the teeth

- Ultrasound of abdomen to identify undescended testis

If infested, animals should be removed from the flock and all wool in and around roughly a 1 cm or larger radius of the discoloured area clipped. The area is treated with insecticide to kill the maggots. Soothing cream can also be applied to skin grazes or lesions caused by the maggots. Clippings should be collected after removal and placed in a maggot-proof bag and left closed in the sun, to ensure that no other animal is infected.

Subsequent epidemiological studies suggested that EMS was linked to specific batches of L-tryptophan supplied by a single large Japanese manufacturer, Showa Denko. It eventually became clear that recent batches of Showa Denko's L-tryptophan were contaminated by trace impurities, which were subsequently thought to be responsible for the 1989 EMS outbreak. While a total of 60 trace contaminants were eventually identified, only 6 of them were associated with EMS. The compound EBT (1,1'-ethylidene-bis-L-tryptophan, also known as "Peak E") was the only contaminant identifiable by initial analysis, but further analysis revealed PAA (3-(phenylamino)-L-alanine, also known as "UV-5"), and peak 200 (2[3-indolyl-methyl]-L-tryptophan). Two of the remaining uncharacterized peaks associated with EMS have been labeled "UV-28" and "peak AAA", with peak AAA being "the contaminant most significantly associated with EMS". The specific impurity or impurities responsible for the toxic effects was never firmly established. EBT has been frequently implicated as the culprit, but there is no statistically significant association between EBT levels and EMS.

As most research has focused on attempts to associate individual contaminants with EMS, there is a lack of detailed research on other possible contributing factors. Tryptophan itself has been implicated as a potentially major contributory factor in EMS. While critics of this theory have argued that this hypothesis fails to explain the near-absent reports of EMS prior to and following the EMS outbreak, this fails to take into account the sudden rapid increase in tryptophan's usage immediately prior to the 1989 outbreak, and ignores the strong influence of the EMS outbreak's legacy and the extended FDA ban on later usage of tryptophan. Crucially, this also ignores the existence of a number of cases of EMS that developed both prior to and after the primary epidemic, including at least one case where the tryptophan was tested and found to lack the contaminants found in the contaminated lots of Showa Denko's tryptophan, as well as cases with other supplements inducing EMS, and even a case of EMS induced by excessive dietary L-tryptophan intake via overconsumption of cashew nuts. A major Canadian analysis located a number of patients that met the CDC criteria for EMS but had never been exposed to tryptophan, which "brings causal interpretations of earlier studies into question". Other research highlighted numerous major flaws in many of the epidemiological studies on the association of tryptophan with EMS, which cast serious doubt on the validity of their results. As the FDA concluded, "other brands of L-tryptophan, or L-tryptophan itself, regardless of the levels or presence of impurities, could not be eliminated as causal or contributing to the development of EMS". Even animal studies have suggested that tryptophan itself "when ingested by susceptible individuals either alone or in combination with some other component in the product, results in the pathological features in EMS".

At the time of the outbreak, Showa Denko had recently made alterations to its manufacturing procedures that were thought to be linked to the possible origin of the contaminants detected in the affected lots of tryptophan. A key change was the reduction of the amount of activated charcoal used to purify each batch from >20 kg to 10 kg. A portion of the contaminated batches had also bypassed another filtration step that used reverse-osmosis to remove certain impurities. Additionally, the bacterial culture used to synthesize tryptophan was a strain of "Bacillus amyloliquefaciens" had been genetically engineered to increase tryptophan production. Although the prior four generations of the genetically engineered strain had been used without incident, the fifth generation used for the contaminated batches was thought to be a possible source of the impurities that were detected. This has been misused to argue that the genetic engineering itself was the primary cause of the contamination, a stance that was heavily criticized for overlooking the other known non-GMO causes of contamination, as well as for its use by anti-GMO activists as a way to threaten the development of biotechnology with false information. The reduction in the amount of activated carbon used and the introduction of the fifth generation "Bacillus amyloliquefaciens" strain were both associated with the development of EMS, but due to the high overlap of these changes, the precise independent contribution of each change could not be determined (although the bypass of the reverse-osmosis filtration for certain lots was determined to be not significantly associated with the contaminated lots of tryptophan). While Showa Denko claimed a purity of 99.6%, it was noted that "the quantities of the known EMS associated contaminants, EBT and PAA, were remarkably small, of the order of 0.01%, and could easily escape detection".

There are several preventative measures which are used to reduce the occurrence of flystrike in sheep flocks, these include:

- Controlling intestinal parasites to prevent scours and a suitable surface for flystrike

- Scheduled shearing and crutching

- Removing the tails of lambs at weaning

- Mulesing

- Preventative chemical treatments before fly infestation risk is high

- Breeding for traits that reduce the likelihood of infestation

- Removing or avoiding large maunure heaps or other sites attractive to the flies

- Using fly traps near the flock to attract and kill any local flies, helping to minimise the local populations. NB: Traps often emit a pungent smell and are best placed away from human activity.

None of these measures completely stop the occurrence of fly strike in sheep, and regular treatment is still necessary.

complete blood cell (CBC) counts, peripheral blood smears, and iron studies (e.g., serum iron, total iron-binding capacity [TIBC], ferritin, saturation percentage) to confirm iron deficiency, with or without hypochromic microcytic anemia.

Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN) testing is a common practice used by law enforcement in the United States in the identification of persons who are intoxicated or under the influence of a controlled substance. The key difference between recognizing PAN and horizontal gaze nystagmus is the position of the subject's head in relation to the body. PAN is identified when the head is tilted to one side or the other. In order for HGN to be properly identified, the head must be positioned in line with the spine. Because of this, if the head is tilted towards the side when an evaluation for HGN is given, PAN may be induced and give a "false positive" for HGN. Some defendants may claim or argue that the nystagmus observed by an officer was positional and not horizontal gaze.

Barium esophagography and videofluoroscopy will help to detect esophageal webs. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy will enable visual confirmation of esophageal webs.

Successful treatment of the associated underlying disorder, such as GORD or hiatus hernia, may provide relief.

The main diagnostic tools for evaluating FND are X-rays and CT-scans of the skull. These tools could display any possible intracranial pathology in FND. For example, CT can be used to reveal widening of nasal bones. Diagnostics are mainly used before reconstructive surgery, for proper planning and preparation.

Prenatally, various features of FND (such as hypertelorism) can be recognized using ultrasound techniques. However, only three cases of FND have been diagnosed based on a prenatal ultrasound.

Other conditions may also show symptoms of FND. For example, there are other syndromes that also represent with hypertelorism. Furthermore, disorders like an intracranial cyst can affect the frontonasal region, which can lead to symptoms similar to FND. Therefore, other options should always be considered in the differential diagnosis.

Occupational skin diseases are ranked among the top five occupational diseases in many countries.

Occupational skin diseases and conditions are generally caused by chemicals and having wet hands for long periods while at work. Eczema is by far the most common, but urticaria, sunburn and skin cancer are also of concern.

Contact dermatitis due to irritation is inflammation of the skin which results from a contact with an irritant. It has been observed that this type of dermatitis does not require prior sensitization of the immune system. There have been studies to support that past or present atopic dermatitis is a risk factor for this type of dermatitis. Common irritants include detergents, acids, alkalies, oils, organic solvents and reducing agents.

The acute form of this dermatitis develops on exposure of the skin to a strong irritant or caustic chemical. This exposure can occur as a result of accident at a workplace. The irritant reaction starts to increase in its intensity within minutes to hours of exposure to the irritant and reaches its peak quickly. After the reaction has reached its peak level, it starts to heal. This process is known as decrescendo phenomenon. The most frequent potent irritants leading to this type of dermatitis are acids and alkaline solutions. The symptoms include redness and swelling of the skin along with the formation of blisters.

The chronic form occurs as a result of repeated exposure of the skin to weak irritants over long periods of time.

Clinical manifestations of the contact dermatitis are also modified by external factors such as environmental factors (mechanical pressure, temperature, and humidity) and predisposing characteristics of the individual (age, sex, ethnic origin, preexisting skin disease, atopic skin diathesis, and anatomic region exposed.

Another occupational skin disease is Glove related hand urticaria. It has been reported as an occupational problem among the health care workers. This type of hand urticaria is believed to be caused by repeated wearing and removal of the gloves. The reaction is caused by the latex or the nitrile present in the gloves.

High-risk occupations include:

- Hairdressing

- Catering

- Healthcare

- Printing

- Metal machining

- Motor vehicle repair

- Construction