Previa can be confirmed with an ultrasound. Transvaginal ultrasound has superior accuracy as compared to transabdominal one, thus allowing measurement of distance between placenta and cervical os. This has rendered traditional classification of placenta previa obsolete.

False positives may be due to following reasons:

- Overfilled bladder compressing lower uterine segment

- Myometrial contraction simulating placental tissue in abnormally low location

- Early pregnancy low position, which in third trimester may be entirely normal due to differential growth of the uterus.

In such cases, repeat scanning is done after an interval of 15–30 minutes.

In parts of the world where ultrasound is unavailable, it is not uncommon to confirm the diagnosis with an examination in the surgical theatre. The proper timing of an examination in theatre is important. If the woman is not bleeding severely she can be managed non-operatively until the 36th week. By this time the baby's chance of survival is as good as at full term.

History may reveal antepartum hemorrhage. Abdominal examination usually finds the uterus non-tender, soft and relaxed. Leopold's Maneuvers may find the fetus in an oblique or breech position or lying transverse as a result of the abnormal position of the placenta. Malpresentation is found in about 35% cases. Vaginal examination is avoided in known cases of placenta previa.

If a small amount of bleeding is seen in early pregnancy a physician may request:

- A quantitative human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) blood test to confirm the pregnancy or assist in diagnosing a potential miscarriage

- Transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography to confirm that the pregnancy is not outside of the uterus

- Blood type and Rh test to rule out hemolytic disease of the newborn

For bleeding seen in later pregnancy tests may include:

- Complete blood count (CBC) and blood type and screen

- Ultrasound to determine placental location

- Kleihauer-Betke (KB) test especially if there was maternal trauma

It is recommended that women with vasa previa should deliver through elective cesarean prior to rupture of the membranes. Given the timing of membrane rupture is difficult to predict, elective cesarean delivery at 35–36 weeks is recommended. This gestational age gives a reasonable balance between the risk of death and that of prematurity. Several authorities have recommended hospital admission about 32 weeks. This is to give the patient proximity to the operating room for emergency delivery should the membranes rupture. Because these patients are at risk for preterm delivery, it is recommended that steroids should be given to promote fetal lung maturation. When bleeding occurs, the patient goes into labor, or if the membranes rupture, immediate treatment with an emergency caesarean delivery is usually indicated.

Pregnant patients may have bleeding from the reproductive tract due to trauma, including sexual trauma, neoplasm, most commonly cervical cancer, and hematologic disorders. Molar pregnancy (also called hydatiform mole) is a type of pregnancy where the sperm and the egg have joined within the uterus, but the result is a cyst resembling a grape-like cluster rather than an embryo. Bleeding can be an early sign of this tumor developing.

Placental abruption is suspected when a pregnant mother has sudden localized abdominal pain with or without bleeding. The fundus may be monitored because a rising fundus can indicate bleeding. An ultrasound may be used to rule out placenta praevia but is not diagnostic for abruption. The diagnosis is one of exclusion, meaning other possible sources of vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain have to be ruled out in order to diagnose placental abruption. Of note, use of magnetic resonance imaging has been found to be highly sensitive in depicting placental abruption, and may be considered if no ultrasound evidence of placental abruption is present, especially if the diagnosis of placental abruption would change management.

Although the risk of placental abruption cannot be eliminated, it can be reduced. Avoiding tobacco, alcohol and cocaine during pregnancy decreases the risk. Staying away from activities which have a high risk of physical trauma is also important. Women who have high blood pressure or who have had a previous placental abruption and want to conceive must be closely supervised by a doctor.

The risk of placental abruption can be reduced by maintaining a good diet including taking folic acid, regular sleep patterns and correction of pregnancy-induced hypertension.

It is crucial for women to be made aware of the signs of placental abruption, such as vaginal bleeding, and that if they experience such symptoms they must get into contact with their health care provider/the hospital "without any delay".

Vasa previa is seen more commonly with velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord, accessory placental lobes (succenturiate or bilobate placenta), multiple gestation, IVF pregnancy. In IVF pregnancies incidences as high as one in 300 have been reported. The reasons for this association are not clear, but disturbed orientation of the blastocyst at implantation, vanishing embryos and the increased frequency of placental morphological variations in in vitro fertilisation pregnancies have all been postulated.

Some disorders and conditions can mean that pregnancy is considered high-risk (about 6-8% of pregnancies in the USA) and in extreme cases may be contraindicated. High-risk pregnancies are the main focus of doctors specialising in maternal-fetal medicine.

Serious pre-existing disorders which can reduce a woman's physical ability to survive pregnancy include a range of congenital defects (that is, conditions with which the woman herself was born, for example, those of the heart or , some of which are listed above) and diseases acquired at any time during the woman's life.

Miscarriage is the loss of a pregnancy prior to 20 weeks. In the UK miscarriage is defined as the loss of a pregnancy during the first 23 weeks.

Velamentous cord insertion is an abnormal condition during pregnancy. Normally, the umbilical cord inserts into the middle of the placenta as it develops. In velamentous cord insertion, the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes (choriamniotic membranes), then travels within the membranes to the placenta (between the amnion and the chorion). The exposed vessels are not protected by Wharton's jelly and hence are vulnerable to rupture. Rupture is especially likely if the vessels are near the cervix, in which case they may rupture in early labor, likely resulting in a stillbirth. This is a serious condition called vasa previa. Not every pregnancy with a velamentous cord insertion results in vasa previa, only those in which the blood vessels are near the cervix.

When a velamentous cord insertion is discovered, the obstetrician will monitor the pregnancy closely for the presence of vasa previa. If the blood vessels are near the cervix, the baby will be delivered via cesarean section as early as 35 weeks to prevent the mother from going into labor, which is associated with a high infant mortality. Early detection can reduce the need for emergency cesarean sections.

The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends a single screening ultrasound for abdominal aortic aneurysm in males age 65 to 75 years who have a history of smoking. There is an estimated number needed to screen of approximately 850 people. It is unclear if screening is useful in women aged 65 to 75 who have smoked and they recommend against screening in women who have never smoked.

Repeat ultrasounds should be carried out in those who have an aortic size greater than 3.0 cm. In those whose aorta is between 3.0 and 3.9 cm this should be every three years, if between 4.0 and 4.4 cm every two year, and if between 4.5 and 5.4 cm every year.

In the United Kingdom one time screening is recommended in all males over 65 years of age. Australia has no guideline on screening.

Individuals with CAVD can reproduce with the assistance of modern technology with a combination of testicular sperm extraction and intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI). However, as the risk of either cystic fibrosis or renal agenesis is likely to be higher in the children, genetic counseling is generally recommended.

A sperm granuloma is a lump of extravasated sperm that appears along the vasa deferentia or epididymides in vasectomized men. Sperm granulomas are rounded or irregular in shape, one millimeter to one centimeter or more, with a central mass of degenerating sperm surrounded by tissue containing blood vessels and immune system cells. Sperm granulomas can be either asymptomatic or symptomatic (i.e., either not painful or painful, respectively) (see post-vasectomy pain syndrome).

The vast majority of sperm granulomas in vasectomized men are present as a result of the pressure-induced changes of vasectomy.

Low-volume, runny/fluid semen (oligospermia) or no semen at all (dry ejaculation/aspermia) are a logical consequence of an obstruction downstream of the seminal vesicles which contribute most to the volume of the semen. Usually, men will be able to observe a runny/fluid, low-volume semen by themselves during masturbation. Since the seminal vesicles contain a viscous, alkaline fluid rich in fructose, a chemical analysis of the semen of affected men will result in a low concentration of fructose and a low pH. A microscopic semen analysis will reveal aspermia/azoospermia.

In contrast, if both vasa deferentia are obstructed (which may be the result of intended sterilization), a semen analysis will also reveal aspermia/azoospermia, but an almost normal volume of the semen, since the efflux of the seminal vesicles is not hindered. This is because approx. 80% of the volume of the semen is the gel-like fluid originating from the seminal vesicles whereas the fraction from the testicles / epididymis, which contains the spermatozoa accounts for only 5–10% of the volume of the semen. In addition, if an obstruction of the vasa deferentia is the cause for the azoospermia, the concentration of fructose in the semen will also be normal, since the fructose comes primarily from the fluid stored in the seminal vesicles. If the seminal-vesicles contain spermatozoa, but the semen does not, the obstruction must be downstream of the seminal vesicles and the ejaculatory ducts are very likely to be obstructed, provided that other causes for a dry ejaculation/aspermia such as an retrograde ejaculation are ruled out.

Attempts are sometimes made to diagnose an ejaculatory duct obstruction by means of medical imaging, e.g. transrectal ultrasound or MRI, or by transrectal needle-aspiration of the seminal vesicles. However transrectal ultrasound has a relatively low sensitivity of approx. 50% and thus is only a tool to rule-out cysts in the region of the orifices but is not sufficient to rule out an obstruction of the ejaculatory ducts due to other causes. In approx. 50% of cases of unexplained low-volume azoospermia MRI and TRUS do not reveal any pathological findings, because it is difficult to see alterations in a narrowed, scarred duct with these methods. Due to the blockage of ejaculatory ducts, enlarged seminal vesicles are frequently seen in patients with ejaculatory duct obstructions. However, this is again neither a proof of an obstruction nor do normal-sized seminal vesicles rule-out an obstruction of the ejaculatory ducts. Since ejaculatory duct obstruction is a relatively rare cause of infertility, this possibility may be unfamiliar to some physicians, even some urologists.

Patients can lower their risk for vulnerable plaque rupture in the same ways that they can cut their heart attack risk: Optimize lipoprotein patterns, keep blood glucose levels low normal (see HbA1c), stay slender, eat a proper diet, quit smoking, and maintain a regular exercise program. Researchers also think that obesity and diabetes may be tied to high levels of C-reactive protein.

Scrotal ultrasonography and transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS) are useful in detecting uni- or bilateral CBAVD, which may be associated with visible abnormalities or agenesis of the epididymis, seminal vesicles or kidneys.

Various diagnostic modalities exist to demonstrate blood flow or absence thereof in the vertebral arteries. The gold standard is cerebral angiography (with or without digital subtraction angiography). This involves puncture of a large artery (usually the femoral artery) and advancing an intravascular catheter through the aorta towards the vertebral arteries. At that point, radiocontrast is injected and its downstream flow captured on fluoroscopy (continuous X-ray imaging). The vessel may appear stenotic (narrowed, 41–75%), occluded (blocked, 18–49%), or as an aneurysm (area of dilation, 5–13%). The narrowing may be described as "rat's tail" or "string sign". Cerebral angiography is an invasive procedure, and it requires large volumes of radiocontrast that can cause complications such as kidney damage. Angiography also does not directly demonstrate the blood in the vessel wall, as opposed to more modern modalities. The only remaining use of angiography is when endovascular treatment is contemplated (see below).

More modern methods involve computed tomography (CT angiography) and magnetic resonance imaging (MR angiography). They use smaller amounts of contrast and are not invasive. CT angiography and MR angiography are more or less equivalent when used to diagnose or exclude vertebral artery dissection. CTA has the advantage of showing certain abnormalities earlier, tends to be available outside office hours, and can be performed rapidly. When MR angiography is used, the best results are achieved in the "T" setting using a protocol known as "fat suppression". Doppler ultrasound is less useful as it provides little information about the part of the artery close to the skull base and in the vertebral foramina, and any abnormality detected on ultrasound would still require confirmation with CT or MRI.

A method to treat ejaculatory duct obstruction is transurethral resection of the ejaculatory ducts (TURED). This operative procedure is relatively invasive, has some severe complications, and has led to natural pregnancies of their partners in approximately 20% of affected men. A disadvantage is the destruction of the valves at the openings of the ejaculatory ducts into the urethra such that urine may flow backwards into the seminal vesicles. Another, experimental approach is the recanalization of the ejaculatory ducts by transrectal or transurethral inserted balloon catheter. Though much less invasive and preserving the anatomy of the ejaculatory ducts, this procedure is probably not completely free of complications either and success rates are unknown. There is a clinical study currently ongoing to examine the success rate of recanalization of the ejaculatory ducts by means of balloon dilation.

Usually, affected men have a normal production of spermatozoa in their testicles, so that after spermatozoa were harvested directly from the testes e.g. by TESE, or the seminal vesicles (by needle aspiration) they and their partners are potentially candidates for some treatment options of assisted reproduction e.g. in-vitro fertilisation. Note that in this case, most of the treatment (e.g. ovarian stimulation and transvaginal oocyte retrieval) is transferred to the female partner.

Abdominal aortic aneurysms are commonly divided according to their size and symptomatology. An aneurysm is usually defined as an outer aortic diameter over 3 cm (normal diameter of the aorta is around 2 cm), or more than 50% of normal diameter. If the outer diameter exceeds 5.5 cm, the aneurysm is considered to be large.

A ruptured AAA is a clinical diagnosis involving the presence of the triad of abdominal pain, shock, and a pulsatile abdominal mass. If these conditions are present, indicating AAA rupture, no further clinical investigations are needed before surgery.

While a single ruptured plaque can be identified during autopsy as the cause of a coronary event, there is currently no way to identify a culprit lesion before it ruptures.

Because artery walls typically enlarge in response to enlarging plaques, these plaques do not usually produce much stenosis of the artery lumen. Therefore, they are not detected by cardiac stress tests or angiography, the tests most commonly performed clinically with the goal of predicting susceptibility to future heart attack. In contrast to conventional angiography, cardiac CT angiography does enable visualization of the vessel wall as well as plaque composition. Some of the CT derived plaque characteristics can help predict for acute coronary syndrome. In addition, because these lesions do not produce significant stenoses, they are typically not considered "critical" and/or interventionable by interventional cardiologists, even though research indicates that they are the more important lesions for producing heart attacks.

The tests most commonly performed clinically with the goal of testing susceptibility to future heart attack include several medical research efforts, starting in the early to mid-1990s, using intravascular ultrasound (IVUS), thermography, near-infrared spectroscopy, careful clinical follow-up, and other methods, to predict these lesions and the individuals most prone to future heart attacks. These efforts remain largely research with no useful clinical methods to date (2006). Furthermore, the usefulness of detecting individual vulnerable plaques by invasive methods has been questioned because many "vulnerable" plaques rupture without any associated symptoms and it remains unclear if the risk of invasive detection methods is outweighed by clinical benefit.

Another approach to detecting and understanding plaque behavior, used in research and by a few clinicians, is to use ultrasound to non-invasively measure wall thickness (usually abbreviated IMT) in portions of larger arteries closest to the skin, such as the carotid or femoral arteries. While stability vs. vulnerability cannot be readily distinguished in this way, quantitative baseline measurements of the thickest portions of the arterial wall (locations with the most plaque accumulation). Documenting the IMT, location of each measurement and plaque size, a basis for tracking and partially verifying the effects of medical treatments on the progression, stability, or potential regression of plaque, within a given individual over time, may be achieved.

The use of heparin following surgery is common if there are no issues with bleeding. Generally, a risk-benefit analysis is required, as all anticoagulants lead to an increased risk of bleeding. In people admitted to hospital, thrombosis is a major cause for complications and occasionally death. In the UK, for instance, the Parliamentary Health Select Committee heard in 2005 that the annual rate of death due to thrombosis was 25,000, with at least 50% of these being hospital-acquired. Hence "thromboprophylaxis" (prevention of thrombosis) is increasingly emphasized. In patients admitted for surgery, graded compression stockings are widely used, and in severe illness, prolonged immobility and in all orthopedic surgery, professional guidelines recommend low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) administration, mechanical calf compression or (if all else is contraindicated and the patient has recently suffered deep vein thrombosis) the insertion of a vena cava filter. In patients with medical rather than surgical illness, LMWH too is known to prevent thrombosis, and in the United Kingdom the Chief Medical Officer has issued guidance to the effect that preventative measures should be used in medical patients, in anticipation of formal guidelines.

Prognosis of spontaneous cervical arterial dissection involves neurological and arterial results. The overall functional prognosis of individuals with stroke due to cervical artery dissection does not appear to vary from that of young people with stroke due to other causes. The rate of survival with good outcome (a modified Rankin score of 0–2) is generally about 75%, or possibly slightly better (85.7%) if antiplatelet drugs are used. In studies of anticoagulants and aspirin, the combined mortality with either treatment is 1.8–2.1%.

After the initial episode, 2% may experience a further episode within the first month. After this, there is a 1% annual risk of recurrence. Those with high blood pressure and dissections in multiple arteries may have a higher risk of recurrence. Further episodes of cervical artery dissection are more common in those who are younger, have a family history of cervical artery dissection, or have a diagnosis of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome or fibromuscular dysplasia.

Since the cause of FAD has not been genetically pinpointed, the only way to diagnose FAD is through the examination of phenotypic variations in the aorta. Usually echocardiography is used to take measurements of the aortic root as well as transesophageal echocardiography. Biomarkers lend a quick way to diagnose dissection when time is of the essence. These have the ability to relay the levels of smooth muscle mysosin heavy chain protein present, which is released from damaged aortic tissue.

There are two types of FAD; groups A and B. Normally if any area of the ascending aorta is involved in the dissection this is considered group A. If the dissection occurs within the descending aorta this is classified in group B. These two groups can than be broken down into three classes of FAD: Type 1, Type 2 and Type 3. Group A consists of Types 1 and 2, whereas Group B consists only of Type 3. Type 1 encompasses dissection in the distal ascending aorta closest to the heart, not including the aortic arch. Type 2 refers to dissection of the ascending aorta, closer to and including the aortic arch. Type 3 refers to the descending thoracic and abdominal aorta.

Group A dissections are the more serious of the two due to the location of the dissection in the ascending aorta, which leads to a higher risk of congestive heart failure and pericardium and/or aortic valve rupture. Individuals also tend to be predisposed to type A if they do have Marfans or Elhers-Danlos syndromes. These contribute to a higher fatality rate in group A dissection if immediate surgery is not performed. The most common corrective surgeries are actual aortic valve replacement and coronary artery bypass. The five year survival rate after surgery is a successful 70.4% due to vigilant monthly physical exams and chest x-rays to monitor progress. Group B dissections typically have a higher surgery mortality rate and are therefore not good candidates. Instead medical management is the common response to treating and keeping dissections of the descending aorta under control.

Surgery (orchiopexy) to retrieve the testes and position them in the scrotum is the primary treatment. Occasionally they are unsalvageable if located high in the retroperitoneum. During this surgery, the uterus is usually removed and attempts made to dissect away Müllerian tissue from the vas deferens and epididymis to improve the chance of fertility. If the person has male gender identity himself and the testes cannot be retrieved, testosterone replacement will be usually necessary at puberty should the affected individual choose to pursue medical attention. Lately, laparoscopic hysterectomy is offered to patients as a solution to both improve the chances of fertility and to prevent the occurrences of neoplastic tissue formation.