Screening tools for contact granulomas are not currently available. Diagnosis of contact granulomas require visualization using laryngoscopy, and may require further biopsy for differential diagnosis. A combination of symptoms and lifestyle factors may be linked with the development of a contact granuloma, however symptoms vary greatly by individual. Some lifestyle factors that have been linked with elevated risk of development of contact granulomas include frequent use of the voice, especially when in loud environments, and concurrent use of the voice with alcohol consumption (increasing risk of gastroesophageal reflux symptoms). Contact granuloma may also arise after intubation, and so following intubation, patients should be monitored if voice symptoms arise. Symptoms may or may not include hoarse voice, described as "huskiness" by some patients, "aching" in the throat related to increased effort to produce voice, and the feeling of having a lump in one's throat when swallowing. It is also possible to have no such symptoms, especially if the granuloma is small. A patient presenting with such symptoms or risk factors should therefore be referred for further visualization. It is therefore recommended to obtain a diagnosis from a doctor.

Various methods are used to diagnose contact granuloma which aid in differentiating it from other vocal fold pathology. Laryngoscopy can allow visualization of the suspected granuloma while also checking for signs of vocal abuse. Laryngoscopy, as well as an acoustic analysis of the voice, can help rule out vocal fold paresis as an underlying cause. Microscopic examination of the tissue can help determine that the lesion is benign rather than cancerous, as would be the case in contact granuloma. Other methods such as laryngeal electromyography and reflux testing can also be used to evaluate the function of the vocal folds and determine if laryngopharyngeal reflux is contributing to the pathology.

In irrigation test, a lacrimal irrigation cannula is passed into the punctum and advanced through the canaliculus to the lacrimal fossa. Clear water or saline is then irrigated through the cannula. If fluid passes into the nose without reflux out of the opposite canaliculus, the system is patent. If no fluid passes but it all comes back through either punctum, nasolacrimal duct obstruction is present.

The dye disappearance test (DDT) is useful for assessing the presence or absence of adequate lacrimal outflow, especially in unilateral cases. It is more heavily relied upon in children, in whom lacrimal irrigation is impossible without deep sedation. Using a drop of sterile 2% fluorescein solution or a moistened fluorescein strip, the examiner instills fluorescein into the conjunctival fornices of each eye and then observes the tear film, preferably with the cobalt blue filter of the slit lamp. Persistence of significant dye and, particularly asymmetric clearance of the dye from the tear meniscus over a 5-minute period indicate an obstruction. If the DDT result is normal, severe lacrimal drainage dysfunction is highly unlikely. Variations of the DDT are the Jones tests.

The younger the patient and the lower the grade at presentation the higher the chance of spontaneous resolution. Approximately 85% of grade I & II VUR cases will resolve spontaneously. Approximately 50% of grade III cases and a lower percentage of higher grades will also resolve spontaneously.

The following procedures may be used to diagnose VUR:

- Cystography

- Fluoroscopic voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)

- Abdominal ultrasound

- Technetium-99m Dimercaptosuccunic Acid (DMSA) Scintigraphy

An abdominal ultrasound might suggest the presence of VUR if ureteral dilatation is present; however, in many circumstances of VUR of low to moderate, even high severity, the sonogram may be completely normal, thus providing insufficient utility as a single diagnostic test in the evaluation of children suspected of having VUR, such as those presenting with prenatal hydronephrosis or urinary tract infection (UTI).

VCUG is the method of choice for grading and initial workup, while RNC is preferred for subsequent evaluations as there is less exposure to radiation. A high index of suspicion should be attached to any case where a child presents with a urinary tract infection, and anatomical causes should be excluded. A VCUG and abdominal ultrasound should be performed in these cases

DMSA scintigraphy is used for the evaluation of the paranchymal damage, which is seen as cortical scars. After the first febrile UTI, the diagnostic role of an initial scintigraphy for detecting the damage before the VCUG was investigated and it was suggested that VCUG can be omitted in children who has no cortical scars and urinary tract dilatation.

Early diagnosis in children is crucial as studies have shown that the children with VUR who present with a UTI and associated acute pyelonephritis are more likely to develop permanent renal cortical scarring than those children without VUR, with an odds ratio of 2.8. Thus VUR not only increases the frequency of UTI's, but also the risk of damage to upper urinary structures and end-stage renal disease.

Reinke's edema is often diagnosed by an Ear, Nose & Throat (ENT) specialist or an Otolaryngologist by examination of the vocal cords. First, the doctor will review the patient's medical history and symptoms, such as hoarseness, dysphonia, and reduced vocal range. There is no familial or hereditary link to Reinke's edema. Because Reinke's edema is linked heavily to smoking, the doctor will need to know if the patient is a habitual smoker. Once the patient's history is reviewed, the vocal cords will be visualized using laryngoscopy, a technique in which a tube with a camera (endoscope) is passed through the nose and down the larynx. Laryngoscopes can be rigid or flexible. Flexible laryngoscopes, such as fiber laryngoscopes, allow the patient to produce sound as the tube is placed, and therefore allows the doctor to visualize movement of the vocal cord.

Based on the results of the laryngoscopy, Reinke's edema can be classified using a standardized system set in place by Yonekawa. This system characterizes the disease based disease .

Yonekawa Classification:

- Grade I – Lesions contact the anterior third of the vocal fold

- Grade II – Lesions contact the anterior two-thirds of the vocal fold

- Grade III – Lesions contact the entirety of the vocal fold

If further evaluation is needed, stroboscopy is used to examine mucosal waves of the vocal cords. Mucosal waves describe the waves produced by vibration of the vocal cords during speech. Stroboscopes produce flashes of light that are timed to the patient's vocal frequency. Every time the light is flashed, it will create a still frame image of the vocal cords at that particular moment in time. These are combined to produce an image of the wave. In the case of Reinke's edema, structural changes to the vocal cords will result in abnormal wave patterns.

Abdominal ultrasound is of some benefit, but not diagnostic. Features that suggest posterior urethral valves are bilateral hydronephrosis, a thickened bladder wall with thickened smooth muscle trabeculations, and bladder diverticula.

Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) is more specific for the diagnosis. Normal "plicae circularis" are variable in appearance and often not seen on normal VCUGs. PUV on voiding cystourethrogram is characterized by an abrupt tapering of urethral caliber near the verumontanum, with the specific level depending on the developmental variant. Vesicoureteral reflux is also seen in over 50% of cases. Very often the posterior urethra maybe dilated thus making the abrupt narrowing more obvious. the bladder wall may show trabeculations or sacculations or even diverticuli.

Diagnosis can also be made by cystoscopy, where a small camera is inserted into the urethra for direct visualization of the posteriorly positioned valve. A limitation of this technique is that posterior valve tissue is translucent and can be pushed against the wall of the urethra by inflowing irrigation fluid, making it difficult to visualize. Cystoscopy may also demonstrate the bladder changes.

Centers in Europe and Japan have also had excellent results with cystosonography, although it has not been approved for use in the United States yet.

The diagnosis of CdLS is primarily a clinical one, based on medical signs that are evident in a medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests. Since 2006, testing for NIPBL and SMC1A has been available through the University of Chicago. This is best accomplished through a referral to a genetics specialist or clinic.

CdLS is thought to be underdiagnosed and frequently misdiagnosed.

A thorough diagnosis should be performed on every affected individual, and siblings should be studied for deafness, parathyroid and renal disease. The syndrome should be considered in infants who have been diagnosed prenatally with a chromosome 10p defect, and those who have been diagnosed with well defined phenotypes of urinary tract abnormalities. Management consists of treating the clinical abnormalities at the time of presentation. Prognosis depends on the severity of the kidney disease.

The most effective diagnostic strategy is to perform laryngoscopy during an episode, at which time abnormal movement of the cords, if present, can be observed. If the endoscopy is not performed during an episode, it is likely that the vocal folds will be moving normally, a 'false negative' finding.

Spirometry may also be useful to establish the diagnosis of VCD when performed during a crisis or after a nasal provocation test. With spirometry, just as the expiratory loop may show flattening or concavity when expiration is affected in asthma, so may the Inspiratory loop show truncation or flattening in VCD. Of course, testing may well be negative when symptoms are absent.

The symptoms of VCD are often inaccurately attributed to asthma, which in turn results in the unnecessary and futile intake of corticosteroids, bronchodilators and leukotriene modifiers, although there are instances of comorbidity of asthma and VCD.

The differential diagnosis for vocal cord dysfunction includes vocal fold swelling from allergy, asthma, or some obstruction of the vocal folds or throat. Anyone suspected of this condition should be evaluated and the vocal folds (voice box) visualized. In individuals who experience a persistent difficulty with inhaling, consideration should be given to a neurological cause such as brain stem compression, cerebral palsy, etc.

The main difference between VCD and asthma is the audible stridor or wheezing that occurs at different stages of the breath cycle: VCD usually causes stridor on the inhalation, while asthma results in wheezing during exhalation. Patients with asthma usually respond to the usual medication and see their symptoms resolve. Clinical measures that can be done to differentiate VCD from asthma include:

- rhinolaryngoscopy: A patient with asthma will have normal vocal cord movement, while one with VCD will display vocal cord abduction during inhalation

- spirometry: A change in the measure following the administration of a bronchodilator is suggestive of asthma rather than VCD

- chest radiography: The presence of hyperinflation and peribronchial thickening are indicative of asthma, as patients with VCD will show normal results.

Upon delivery, the exposed bladder is irrigated and a non-adherent film is placed to prevent as much contact with the external environment as possible. In the event the child was not born at a medical center with an appropriate exstrophy support team then transfer will likely follow. Upon transfer, or for those infants born at a medical center able to care for bladder exstrophy, imaging may take place in the first few hours of life prior to the child undergoing surgery.

Primary (immediate) closure is indicated only in those patients with a bladder of appropriate size, elasticity, and contractility as those patients are most likely to develop a bladder of adequate capacity after early surgical intervention.

Conditions that are absolute contraindications despite bladder adequacy include duplication of the penis or scrotum and significant bilateral hydronephrosis.

Diagnosis is based on physical examination including radiographs of the hands and feet and imaging studies of the kidneys, bladder, and female reproductive tract. HOXA13 is the only gene known to be associated with HFGS. Approximately 60% of mutations are polyalanine expansions. Molecular genetic testing is clinically available.

There is no standardized evaluation of the symptoms of UAB, in part due to the historic terminologic confusion. A thorough history aimed at detecting underlying disease or prior pelvic surgeries is certainly necessary. As a perception of volume mishandling, a voiding diary (to assess voided volumes and frequency of voiding) and a post-void residual volume would be valuable information. Uninstrumented uroflow, neurologic and pelvic examination may contribute valuable information. Imaging looking for abnormal bladder morphology or vesicoureteral reflux/hydronephrosis may be helpful. If low-pressure urine storage can be assured, and the urinary reservoir is known to be limited to the bladder, the general value of urodynamic study in UAB is unclear. In specific situations, invasive urodynamics may be helpful to distinguish bladder outlet obstruction from DU, although this distinction can be difficult.

The frequency is unknown, but the disease is considered to be very rare.

Treatment can include amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, intravenous fluid administration and paracetamol oral for pain relief. Other treatment varies based on the condition and extent of uropathy.

Treatment of a laryngeal cleft depends on the length and resulting severity of symptoms. A shallow cleft (Type I) may not require surgical intervention. Symptoms may be able to be managed by thickening the infant's feeds. If symptomatic, Type I clefts can be sutured closed or injected with filler as a temporary fix to determine if obliterating the cleft is beneficial and whether or not a more formal closure is required at a later date. Slightly longer clefts (Type II and short Type III) can be repaired endoscopically. Short type IV clefts extending to within 5 mm below the innominate artery can be repaired through the neck by splitting the trachea vertically in the midline and suturing the back layers of the esophagus and trachea closed. A long, tapered piece of rib graft can be placed between the esophageal and tracheal layers to make them rigid so the patient will not require a tracheotomy after the surgery and to decrease chances of fistula postoperatively. Long Type IV clefts extending further than 5 mm below the innominate artery cannot be reached with a vertical incision in the trachea, and therefore are best repaired through cricotracheal resection. This involves separating the trachea from the cricoid cartilage, leaving the patient intubated through the trachea, suturing each of the esophagus and the back wall of the trachea closed independently, and then reattaching the trachea to the cricoid cartilage. This prevents the need for pulmonary bypass or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation.

In a small retrospective study of 25 pregnancies five factors were found to be strongly associated with a prenatal diagnosis of bladder exstrophy:

- Inability to visualize the bladder on ultrasound

- A lower abdominal bulge

- A small penis with anteriorly displaced scrotum

- A low set umbilical insertion

- Abnormal widening of the iliac crests

While a diagnosis of bladder exstrophy was made retrospectively in a majority of pregnancies, in only three cases was a prenatal diagnosis made.

Additional findings that may be present in HFGS according to the latest research are:

- Limited metacarpophalangeal flexion of the thumb or limited ability to oppose the thumb and fifth finger

- Hypoplastic thenar eminences

- Medial deviation of the great toe (hallux varus), a useful diagnostic sign when present

- Small great toenail

- Fifth-finger clinodactyly, secondary to a shortened middle phalanx

- Short feet

- Altered dermatoglyphics of the hands; when present, primarily involving distal placement of the axial triradius, lack of thenar or hypothenar patterning, low arches on the thumbs, thin ulnar loops (deficiency of radial loops and whorls), and a greatly reduced ridge count on the fingers

Radiographic findings

- Hypoplasia of the distal phalanx and first metacarpal of the thumbs and great toes

- Pointed distal phalanges of the thumb

- Lack of normal tufting of the distal phalanges of the great toes

- Fusions of the cuneiform to other tarsal bones or trapezium-scaphoid fusion of the carpals

- Short calcaneus

- Occasional bony fusions of the middle and distal phalanges of the second, third, fourth, or fifth toes

- Delayed carpal or tarsal maturation

- Metacarpophalangeal profile reflecting shortening of the first metacarpal, the first and second phalanges, and the second phalanx of the second and fifth digits

Urogenital Defects

Females may have the following:

- Vesicoureteral reflux secondary to ureteric incompetence

- Ectopic ureteral orifices

- Trigonal hypoplasia

- Hypospadiac urethra

- Subsymphyseal epispadias

- Patulous urethra

- Urinary incontinence (related to structural anomalies and weakness of the bladder sphincter muscle)

- Small hymenal opening

- Various degrees of incomplete Müllerian fusion with or without two cervices or a longitudinal vaginal septum

Males may have the following:

- Retrograde ejaculation (related to structural anomalies and weakness of the bladder sphincter muscle)

Modeling EEC syndrome in vitro has been achieved by reprogramming EEC fibroblasts carrying mutations R304W and R204W into induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) lines. EEC-iPSC recapitulated defective epidermal and corneal fates. This model further identified PRIMA-1MET, a small compound that was identified as a compound targeting and reactivating p53 mutants based on a cell-based screening for rescuing the apoptotic activity of p53, as efficient to rescue R304W mutation defect. Of interest, similar effect had been observed on keratinocytes derived from the same patients. PRIMA-1MET could become an effective therapeutic tool for EEC patients.

Further genetic research is necessary to identify and rule out other possible loci contributing to EEC syndrome, though it seems certain that disruption of the p63 gene is involved to some extent. In addition, genetic research with an emphasis on genetic syndrome differentiation should prove to be very useful in distinguishing between syndromes that present with very similar clinical findings. There is much debate in current literature regarding clinical markers for syndromic diagnoses. Genetic findings could have great implications in clinical diagnosis and treatment of not only EEC, but also many other related syndromes.

MCDK is usually diagnosed by ultrasound examination before birth. Mean age at the time of antenatal diagnosis is about 28 weeks A microscopic analysis of urine in individuals with probable multicystic dysplastic kidney should be done. One meta-analysis demonstrated that unilateral MCDK occurs more frequently in males and the greater percentage of MCKD occur on the left side of the body.

The first step in treating Reinke’s edema is to eliminate or control those risk factors that are causing the disease. This includes the cessation of smoking, the control of gastric reflux using antacids and/or Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs), and the discontinuation of activities that cause vocal distress. Those experiencing a hoarseness of the voice may choose to undergo voice therapy to improve the voice’s quality and range. Most cases of Reinke’s edema are caused by the long term usage of cigarettes. In this case, it is important to make lifestyle changes to stop smoking. While this will not resolve or improve the edema, the cessation of smoking will halt the disease's progression.

If the elimination of risk factors is not sufficient to improve the patient’s symptoms, surgery may be required. The most common type of surgery performed today for Reinke's edema is called surgical microlaryngoscopy. Most procedures follow the microflap technique set in place by Hirano. During surgery, an incision is made into the vocal cord using either microscissors or a CO laser. A flap of mucosa is lifted and the affected tissue is removed using suction or a microdebrider. The flap is then re-draped and trimmed to the appropriate size.

Most cases of Reinke’s Edema are bilateral - effecting both vocal cords - rather than unilateral. In the case of bilateral edema, the surgeon must choose whether to operate each side of the vocal cord in two separate surgeries or to operate both sides in a single surgery. The complication associated with removing tissue from both sides in a single surgery is that the raw, cut ends of the vocal cords may form an anterior glottis web, in which the two sides grow together in a continuous sheet. Other complications of surgery include tissue scarring due to damage to the vocal ligament during the incision and vocal cord stiffening due to over-suctioning of the superficial lamina propria (Reinke’s space).

While surgical microlarynscopy has its associated risks, if left untreated, Reinke’s edema can lead to a variety of long-term complications. Besides dysphonia (impaired speech), the most serious of these complications is airway obstruction due to severe inflammation of the vocal cords. The risk of complications has decreased drastically with the creation of new tools, such as the CO laser for surgical microlaryngoscopy. Before the Hirano microflap method was developed in 1895, vocal stripping was the most common procedure used to correct Reinke's Edema. Vocal stripping was often performed without magnification and with a monocular laryngoscope, instead of a binocular scope. This led to major complications such as vocal ligament scarring.

Women are more likely than men to undergo surgery due to a greater change in vocal pitch and quality. Surgery is capable of restoring the voice, with the condition that smoking is not resumed after surgery. Post-operative voice therapy is also advised to restore the voice's strength. Reinke's edema is not a fatal pathology unless the tissue becomes precancerous.

If suspected antenatally, a consultation with a paediatric surgeon/ paediatric urologist maybe indicated to evaluate the risk and consider treatment options.

Treatment is by endoscopic valve ablation. Fetal surgery is a high risk procedure reserved for cases with severe oligohydramnios, to try to limit the associated lung underdevelopment, or pulmonary hypoplasia, that is seen at birth in these patients. The risks of fetal surgery are significant and include limb entrapment, abdominal injury, and fetal or maternal death. Specific procedures for "in utero" intervention include infusions of amniotic fluid, serial bladder aspiration, and creating a connection between the amniotic sac and the fetal bladder, or vesicoamniotic shunt.

There are three specific endoscopic treatments of posterior urethral valves:

- Vesicostomy followed by valve ablation - a stoma, or hole, is made in the urinary bladder, also known as "low diversion", after which the valve is ablated and the stoma is closed.

- Pyelostomy followed by valve ablation - stoma is made in the pelvis of the kidney as a slightly "high diversion", after which the valve is ablated and the stoma is closed

- Primary (transurethral) valve ablation - the valve is removed through the urethra without creation of a stoma

The standard treatment is primary (transurethral) ablation of the valves. Urinary diversion is used in selected cases, and its benefit is disputed.

Following surgery, the follow-up in patients with posterior urethral valve syndrome is long term, and often requires a multidisciplinary effort between paediatric surgeons/ paediatric urologists, pulmonologists, neonatologists, radiologists and the family of the patient. Care must be taken to promote proper bladder compliance and renal function, as well as to monitor and treat the significant lung underdevelopment that can accompany the disorder. Definitive treatment may also be indicated for the vesico-ureteral reflux.

Biochemical blood tests determine the amount of typical markers of renal function in the blood serum, for instance serum urea and serum creatinine. Biochemistry can also be used to determine serum electrolytes. Special biochemical tests (arterial blood gas) can determine the amount of dissolved gases in the blood, indicating if pH imbalances are acute or chronic.

Urinalysis is a test that studies urine for abnormal substances such as protein or signs of infection.

- A Full Ward Test, also known as dipstick urinalysis, involves the dipping of a biochemically active test strip into the urine specimen to determine levels of tell-tale chemicals in the urine.

- Urinalysis can also involve MC&S microscopy, culture and sensitivity

Urodynamic tests evaluate the storage of urine in the bladder and the flow of urine from the bladder through the urethra. It may be performed in cases of incontinence or neurological problems affecting the urinary tract.

Ultrasound is commonly performed to investigate problems of the kidney and/or urinary tract.

Radiology:

- KUB is plain radiography of the urinary system, e.g. to identify kidney stones.

- An intravenous pyelogram studies the shape of the urinary system.

- CAT scans and MRI can also be useful in localising urinary tract pathology.

- A voiding cystogram is a functional study where contrast "dye" is injected through a catheter into the bladder. Under x-ray the radiologist asks the patient to void (usually young children) and will watch the contrast exiting the body on the x-ray monitor. This examines the child's bladder and lower urinary tract. Typically looking for vesicoureteral reflux, involving urine backflow up into the kidneys.