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It is estimated that 2—3 percent of hospitalised patients are affected by a drug eruption, and that serious drug eruptions occur in around 1 in 1000 patients.
Drug eruptions are diagnosed mainly from the medical history and clinical examination. However, they can mimic a wide range of other conditions, thus delaying diagnosis (for example, in drug-induced lupus erythematosus, or the acne-like rash caused by erlotinib). A skin biopsy, blood tests or immunological tests can also be useful.
Drug reactions have characteristic timing. The typical amount of time it takes for a rash to appear after exposure to a drug can help categorize the type of reaction. For example, Acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis usually occurs within 4 days of starting the culprit drug. Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms usually occurs between 15 and 40 days after exposure. Toxic epidermal necrolysis and Stevens-Johnson syndrome typically occur 7–21 days after exposure. Anaphylaxis occurs within minutes. Simple exanthematous eruptions occur between 4 and 14 days after exposure.
TEN and SJS are severe cutaneous drug reactions that involve the skin and mucous membranes. To accurately diagnose this condition, a detailed drug history is crucial. Often, several drugs may be causative and allergy testing may be helpful. Sulfa drugs are well-known to induce TEN or SJS in certain people. For example, HIV patients have an increased incidence of SJS or TEN compared to the general population and have been found to express low levels of the drug metabolizing enzyme responsible for detoxifying sulfa drugs. Genetics plays an important role in predisposing certain populations to TEN and SJS. As such, there are some FDA recommended genetic screening tests available for certain drugs and ethnic populations to prevent the occurrence of a drug eruption. The most well known example is carbamezepine (an anti-convulsant used to treat seizures) hypersensitivity associated with the presence of HLA-B*5801 genetic allele in Asian populations.
DIHS is a delayed onset drug eruption, often occurring a few weeks to 3 months after initiation of a drug. Interestingly, worsening of systemic symptoms occurs 3-4 days after cessation of the offending drug. There are genetic risk alleles that are predictive of the development of DIHS for particular drugs and ethnic populations. The most important of which is abacavir (an anti-viral used in the treatment of HIV) hypersensitivity associated with the presence of the HLA-B*5701 allele in European and African population in the United States and Australians.
AGEP is often caused by antimicrobial, anti-fungal or antimalarial drugs. Diagnosis is often carried out by patch testing. This testing should be performed within one month after resolution of the rash and patch test results are interpreted at different time points: 48 hours, 72hours and even later at 96 hours and 120 hours in order to improve the sensitivity.
Diagnosis is typically obtained by an allergist or other licensed practitioner performing a cold test. During the cold test, a piece of ice is held against the forearm, typically for 3–4 minutes. A positive result is a specific looking mark of raised red hives. The hives may be the shape of the ice, or it may radiate from the contact area of the ice." However, while these techniques assist in diagnosis, they do not provide information about temperature and stimulation time thresholds at which patients will start to develop symptoms."which is essential because it can establish disease severity and monitor the effectiveness of treatment.
The cause of chronic hives can rarely be determined. In some cases regular extensive allergy testing over a long period of time is requested in hopes of getting new insight. No evidence shows regular allergy testing results in identification of a problem or relief for people with chronic hives. Regular allergy testing for people with chronic hives is not recommended.
This very rare form of angioedema develops in response to contact with vibration. In vibratory angioedema, symptoms develop within two to five minutes after contact with a vibrating object, and abate after about an hour. Patients with this disorder do not suffer from dermographism or pressure urticaria. Vibratory angioedema is diagnosed by holding a vibrating device such as a laboratory vortex machine against the forearm for four minutes. Speedy swelling of the whole forearm extending into the upper arm is also noted later. The principal treatment is avoidance of vibratory stimulants. Antihistamines have also been proven helpful.
The first-line therapy in ColdU, as recommended by EAACI/GA2 LEN/EDF/WAO guidelines, is symptomatic relief with second-generation H1- antihistamines. if standard doses are ineffective increasing up to 4-fold is recommended to control symptoms.
The second-generation H1-antihistamine, rupatadine, was found to significantly reduce the development of chronic cold urticaria symptom without an increase in adverse effects using 20 and 40 mg.
Allergy medications containing antihistamines such as diphenhydramine (Benadryl), cetirizine (Zyrtec), loratidine (Claritin), cyproheptadine (Periactin), and fexofenadine (Allegra) may be taken orally to prevent and relieve some of the hives (depending on the severity of the allergy). For those who have severe anaphylactic reactions, a prescribed medicine such as doxepin, which is taken daily, should help to prevent and/or lessen the likelihood of a reaction and thus, anaphylaxis. There are also topical antihistamine creams which are used to help relieve hives in other conditions, but there is not any documentation stating it will relieve hives induced by cold temperature.
Cold hives can result in a potentially serious, or even fatal, systemic reaction (anaphylactic shock). People with cold hives may have to carry an injectable form of epinephrine (like Epi-pen or Twinject) for use in the event of a serious reaction.
The best treatment for this allergy is avoiding exposure to cold temperature.
Studies have found that Omalizumab (Xolair) may be an effective and safe treatment to cold urticaria for patient who do not sufficiently respond to standard treatments.
Ebastine has been proposed as an approach to prevent acquired cold urticaria.
There are three main classifications of anaphylaxis. Anaphylactic shock is associated with systemic vasodilation that causes low blood pressure which is by definition 30% lower than the person's baseline or below standard values. Biphasic anaphylaxis is the recurrence of symptoms within 1–72 hours with no further exposure to the allergen. Reports of incidence vary, with some studies claiming as many as 20% of cases. The recurrence typically occurs within 8 hours. It is managed in the same manner as anaphylaxis. Pseudoanaphylaxis or anaphylactoid reactions are a type of anaphylaxis that does not involve an allergic reaction but is due to direct mast cell degranulation. Non-immune anaphylaxis is the current term used by the World Allergy Organization with some recommending that the old terminology no longer be used.
The diagnosis is based on involvement of less than 10% of the skin. It is known as TEN when more than 30% of the skin is involved and an intermediate form with 10 to 30% involvement. A positive Nikolsky's sign is helpful in the diagnosis of SJS and TEN. A skin biopsy is helpful, but not required, to establish a diagnosis of SJS and TEN.
Allergy testing may help in determining the trigger. Skin allergy testing is available for certain foods and venoms. Blood testing for specific IgE can be useful to confirm milk, egg, peanut, tree nut and fish allergies.
Skin testing is available to confirm penicillin allergies, but is not available for other medications. Non-immune forms of anaphylaxis can only be determined by history or exposure to the allergen in question, and not by skin or blood testing.
Drug allergies are attributed to "drug hypersensitivity," otherwise known as objectively reproducible symptoms or signs initiated by exposure to a drug at a dose normally tolerated by non-hypersensitive persons. Drug hypersensitivity reactions are the mediators of a drug allergy.
There are two mechanisms for a drug allergy to occur: IgE or non-IgE mediated. In IgE-mediated reactions, also known as Immunoglobulin E mediated reactions, drug allergens bind to IgE antibodies, which are attached to mast cells and basophils, resulting in IgE cross-linking, cell activation and release of preformed and newly formed mediators.
Risk factors for drug allergies can be attributed to the drug itself or the characteristics of the patient. Drug-specific risk factors include the dose, route of administration, duration of treatment, repetitive exposure to the drug, and concurrent illnesses. Host risk factors include age, sex, atopy, specific genetic polymorphisms, and inherent predisposition to react to multiple unrelated drugs (multiple drug allergy syndrome).
A drug allergy is more likely to develop with large doses and extended exposure.
There are no laboratory or skin testing methods for testing salicylate sensitivity. Provocative challenge is one method of obtaining reliable diagnosis. Provocative challenge is intended to induce a controlled reaction as a means of confirming diagnosis. During provocative challenge, the person is given incrementally higher doses of salicylates, usually aspirin, under medical supervision, until either symptoms appear or the likelihood of symptoms appearing is ruled out.
Causality assessment is used to determine the likelihood that a drug caused a suspected ADR. There are a number of different methods used to judge causation, including the Naranjo algorithm, the Venulet algorithm and the WHO causality term assessment criteria. Each have pros and cons associated with their use and most require some level of expert judgement to apply.
An ADR should not be labeled as 'certain' unless the ADR abates with a challenge-dechallenge-rechallenge protocol (stopping and starting the agent in question). The chronology of the onset of the suspected ADR is important, as another substance or factor may be implicated as a cause; co-prescribed medications and underlying psychiatric conditions may be factors in the ADR.
Assigning causality to a specific agent often proves difficult, unless the event is found during a clinical study or large databases are used. Both methods have difficulties and can be fraught with error. Even in clinical studies some ADRs may be missed as large numbers of test individuals are required to find that adverse drug reaction. Psychiatric ADRs are often missed as they are grouped together in the questionnaires used to assess the population.
Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a milder form of toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN). These conditions were first recognised in 1922. A classification first published in 1993, that has been adopted as a consensus definition, identifies Stevens–Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, and SJS/TEN overlap. All three are part of a spectrum of severe cutaneous reactions (SCAR) which affect skin and mucous membranes. The distinction between SJS, SJS/TEN overlap, and TEN is based on the type of lesions and the amount of the body surface area with blisters and erosions. It is agreed that the most reliable method to classify EM, SJS, and TEN is based on lesion morphology and extent of epidermal detachment. Blisters and erosions cover between 3% and 10% of the body in SJS, 11–30% in SJS/TEN overlap, and over 30% in TEN. The skin pattern most commonly associated with SJS is widespread, often joined or touching (confluent), papuric spots (macules) or flat small blisters or large blisters which may also join together. These occur primarily on the torso.
SJS, TEN, and SJS/TEN overlap can be mistaken for erythema multiforme. Erythema multiforme, which is also within the SCAR spectrum, differs in clinical pattern and etiology. Although both SJS and TEN can also be caused by infections, they are most often adverse effects of medications.
Estimates of latex sensitivity in the general population range from 0.8% to 8.2%.
For some people, the sensitivity is so extreme that replacement of latex products with products made from alternative materials may still result in a reaction if the products are manufactured in the same facility as the latex-containing products, due to trace quantities of natural rubber latex on the non-latex products.
To confirm OAS, the suspected food is consumed in a normal way. The period of observation after ingestion and symptoms are recorded. If other co factors like combined foods are required, this is also replicated in the test. For example, if the individual always develops symptoms after eating followed by exercise, then this is replicated in the laboratory.
Diagnosis is usually based on a medical history, elimination diet, skin prick test, blood tests for food-specific IgE antibodies, or oral food challenge.
- For skin-prick tests, a tiny board with protruding needles is used. The allergens are placed either on the board or directly on the skin. The board is then placed on the skin, to puncture the skin and for the allergens to enter the body. If a hive appears, the person is considered positive for the allergy. This test only works for IgE antibodies. Allergic reactions caused by other antibodies cannot be detected through skin-prick tests.
Skin-prick testing is easy to do and results are available in minutes. Different allergists may use different devices for testing. Some use a "bifurcated needle", which looks like a fork with two prongs. Others use a "multitest", which may look like a small board with several pins sticking out of it. In these tests, a tiny amount of the suspected allergen is put onto the skin or into a testing device, and the device is placed on the skin to prick, or break through, the top layer of skin. This puts a small amount of the allergen under the skin. A hive will form at any spot where the person is allergic. This test generally yields a positive or negative result. It is good for quickly learning if a person is allergic to a particular food or not, because it detects IgE. Skin tests cannot predict if a reaction would occur or what kind of reaction might occur if a person ingests that particular allergen. They can, however, confirm an allergy in light of a patient's history of reactions to a particular food. Non-IgE-mediated allergies cannot be detected by this method.
- Patch testing is used to determine if a specific substance causes allergic inflammation of the skin. It tests for delayed food reactions.
- Blood testing is another way to test for allergies; however, it poses the same disadvantage and only detects IgE allergens and does not work for every possible allergen. Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) is used to detect IgE antibodies present to a certain allergen. The score taken from the RAST is compared to predictive values, taken from a specific type of RAST. If the score is higher than the predictive values, a great chance the allergy is present in the person exists. One advantage of this test is that it can test many allergens at one time.
A CAP-RAST has greater specificity than RAST; it can show the amount of IgE present to each allergen. Researchers have been able to determine "predictive values" for certain foods, which can be compared to the RAST results. If a person's RAST score is higher than the predictive value for that food, over a 95% chance exists that patients will have an allergic reaction (limited to rash and anaphylaxis reactions) if they ingest that food. Currently, predictive values are available for milk, egg, peanut, fish, soy, and wheat. Blood tests allow for hundreds of allergens to be screened from a single sample, and cover food allergies as well as inhalants. However, non-IgE-mediated allergies cannot be detected by this method. Other widely promoted tests such as the antigen leukocyte cellular antibody test and the food allergy profile are considered unproven methods, the use of which is not advised.
- Food challenges test for allergens other than those caused by IgE allergens. The allergen is given to the person in the form of a pill, so the person can ingest the allergen directly. The person is watched for signs and symptoms. The problem with food challenges is that they must be performed in the hospital under careful watch, due to the possibility of anaphylaxis.
Food challenges, especially double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenges, are the gold standard for diagnosis of food allergies, including most non-IgE-mediated reactions. Blind food challenges involve packaging the suspected allergen into a capsule, giving it to the patient, and observing the patient for signs or symptoms of an allergic reaction.
The best method for diagnosing food allergy is to be assessed by an allergist. The allergist will review the patient's history and the symptoms or reactions that have been noted after food ingestion. If the allergist feels the symptoms or reactions are consistent with food allergy, he/she will perform allergy tests. Additional diagnostic tools for evaluation of eosinophilic or non-IgE mediated reactions include endoscopy, colonoscopy, and biopsy.
Paracetamol may be quantified in blood, plasma, or urine as a diagnostic tool in clinical poisoning situations or to aid in the medicolegal investigation of suspicious deaths. The concentration in serum after a typical dose of paracetamol usually peaks below 30 mg/l, which equals 200 µmol/L. Levels of 30–300 mg/L (200–2000 µmol/L) are often observed in overdose patients. Postmortem blood levels have ranged from 50–400 mg/L in persons dying due to acute overdosage. Automated colorimetric techniques, gas chromatography and liquid chromatography are currently in use for the laboratory analysis of the drug in physiological specimens.
Idiosyncratic drug reactions, also known as type B reactions, are drug reactions that occur rarely and unpredictably amongst the population. This is not to be mistaken with idiopathic, which implies that the cause is not known. They frequently occur with exposure to new drugs, as they have not been fully tested and the full range of possible side-effects have not been discovered; they may also be listed as an adverse drug reaction with a drug, but are extremely rare.
Some patients have multiple-drug intolerance. Patients who have multiple idiopathic effects that are nonspecific are more likely to have anxiety and depression.
Idiosyncratic drug reactions appear to not be concentration dependent. A minimal amount of drug will cause an immune response, but it is suspected that at a low enough concentration, a drug will be less likely to initiate an immune response.
Important differential diagnoses are:
- Lactose intolerance generally develops later in life, but can present in young patients in severe cases. It is due to an enzyme deficiency (lactase) and not allergy, and occurs in many non-Western people.
- Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten proteins such as gliadin (present in wheat, rye, and barley). It is a non-IgE-mediated food allergy by definition.
- Irritable bowel syndrome
- C1 Esterase inhibitor deficiency (hereditary angioedema), a rare disease, generally causes attacks of angioedema, but can present solely with abdominal pain and occasional diarrhea.
The majority of children outgrow egg allergy. One review reported that 70% of children will outgrow this allergy by 16 years. In subsequently published longitudinal studies, one reported that for 140 infants who had challenge-confirmed egg allergy, 44% had resolved by two years. A second reported that for 203 infants with confirmed IgE-mediated egg allergy, 45% resolved by two years of age, 66% by four years, and 71% by six years. Children will be able to tolerate eggs as an ingredient in baked goods and well-cooked eggs sooner than under-cooked eggs. Resolution was more likely if baseline serum IgE was lower, and if the baseline symptoms did not include anaphylaxis.
Skin prick tests can be used to confirm specific food allergies. Skin prick tests are designed to identify specific IgE bound to cutaneous mast cells. During the test, a glycerinated allergen extract drop is placed on the patient's skin. The patient's skin is then pricked through the drop. This procedure is repeated with two controls: a histamine drop designed to elicit an allergic response, and a saline drop designed to elicit no allergic response. The wheal that develops from the glycerinated extract drop is compared against the saline control. A positive allergic test is one in which the extract wheal is 3mm larger than the saline wheal. A positive skin prick test is about 50% accurate, so a positive skin prick test alone is not diagnostic of food allergies.
Diagnosis of egg allergy is based on the person's history of allergic reactions, skin prick test (SPT), patch test and measurement of egg-specific serum immunoglobulin E (IgE or sIgE). Confirmation is by double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenges. SPT and sIgE have sensitivity greater than 90% but specificity in the 50-60% range, meaning these tests will detect an egg sensitivity, but will also be positive for other allergens. For young children, attempts have been made to identify SPT and sIgE responses strong enough to avoid the need for a confirming oral food challenge.
Adverse reactions to biologic agents, such as imatinib, occur in more than 80% of patients, and can be characterized by edema and pruritus without dermatitis.