No treatment is required, but neoplastic processes (metastatic maliganancy to the submandibular lymph nodes and/or salivary gland tumours) should be ruled out. This is usually done with clinical exam and imaging. Very rarely, since the defect contains salivary gland tissue, salivary gland tumors can occur within an established defect but there is likely no difference in the risk of neoplasia in salivary gland tissue at other sites.

Stafne defect is uncommon, and has been reported to develop anywhere between the ages of 11 and 30 years old, (although the defect is developmental, it does not seem to be present form birth, implying that the lesion develops at a later age). Usually the defect is unilateral (on one side only) and most commonly occurs in men.

Salivary gland hypoplasia is relative underdevelopment of the Salivary glands. Salivary gland hypoplasia tends to produce xerostomia (dry mouth), with all the associated problems this brings.

It is a rare condition, which may occur as a congenital abnormality or result from lack of neuromuscular stimulation.

It may be associated with Melkersson–Rosenthal syndrome, and hereditary ectodermal dysplasia.

Salivary gland aplasia (also termed salivary gland agenesis) is the congenital absence of salivary glands. Usually the term relates to the absence of some or all of the major salivary glands.

It is a rare condition, and most known cases have been in association with syndromes of the ectodermal tissues, particularly the lacrimal apparatus. Example syndromes which have been reported with salivary gland aplasia include hereditary ectodermal dysplasia, mandibulofacial dysostosis and hemifacial microsomia.

The main significance of the condition is a lack of saliva, causing xerostomia (dry mouth), with accompanying susceptibility to dental caries (tooth decay), infections of the mouth, and upper respiratory tract infections (e.g., candidiasis, ascending sialadenitis, laryngitis and pharyngitis). Patients with salivary gland aplasia typically require regular application of topical fluoride to prevent tooth decay.

There are many diagnostic methods that can be used to determine the type of salivary gland tumour and if it is benign or malignant. Examples of diagnostic methods include:

Physical exam and history: An exam of the body to check general signs of health. The head, neck, mouth, and throat will be checked for signs of disease, such as lumps or anything else that seems unusual. A history of the patient's health habits and past illnesses and treatments will also be taken.

Endoscopy: A procedure to look at organs and tissues inside the body to check for abnormal areas. For salivary gland cancer, an endoscope is inserted into the mouth to look at the mouth, throat, and larynx. An endoscope is a thin, tube-like instrument with a light and a lens for viewing.

MRI

Biopsy: The removal of cells or tissues so they can be viewed under a microscope by a pathologist to check for signs of cancer.

Fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy: The removal of tissue or fluid using a thin needle. An FNA is the most common type of biopsy used for salivary gland cancer, and has been shown to produce accurate results when differentiating between benign and malignant tumours.

Radiographs: An OPG (orthopantomogram) can be taken to rule out mandibular involvement. A chest radiograph may also be taken to rule out any secondary tumours.

Ultrasound: Ultrasound can be used to initially assess a tumour that is located superficially in either the submandibular or parotid gland. It can distinguish an intrinsic from an extrinsic neoplasm. Ultrasonic images of malignant tumours include ill defined margins.

Standard, and most effective, therapy to date is glandular sialadenectomy, which is associated with fairly low operative morbidity; however, in recent times, the administration of steroid (which can shrink the inflammatory lesion and is known to reduce serum IgG4 values) has been considered favorably, and may be useful in younger patients or those who refuse surgery.

Salivary gland hyperplasia is hyperplasia of the terminal duct of salivary glands.

There are two types:

- Acinar adenomatoid hyperplasia

- Ductal adenomatoid hyperplasia

Diagnosis is usually made by characteristic history and physical examination. Diagnosis can be confirmed by x-ray (80% of salivary gland calculi are visible on x-ray), by sialogram, or by ultrasound.

Differentiation between this and SCC would be based on a history of recent trauma or dental treatment in the area.

Immunohistochemistry may aid the diagnosis. If the lesion is NS, there will be focal to absent immunoreactivity for p53, low immunoreactivity for MIB1 (Ki-67), and the presence of 4A4/p63- and calponin-positive myoepithelial cells.

MRI will help with the diagnosis of structural abnormality of the brain. Genetic testing may also be pursued.

Diagnosis is made first by diagnosing Cushing's syndrome, which can be difficult to do clinically since the most characteristic symptoms only occur in a minority of patients. Some of the biochemical diagnostic tests used include salivary and blood serum cortisol testing, 24-hour urinary free cortisol (UFC) testing, the dexamethasone suppression test (DST), and bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling (BIPSS). No single test is perfect and multiple tests should always be used to achieve a proper diagnosis. Diagnosing Cushing's disease is a multidisciplinary process involving doctors, endocrinologists, radiologists, surgeons, and chemical pathologists.

Once Cushing's syndrome has been diagnosed, the first step towards finding the cause is measuring plasma corticotropin concentrations. A concentration consistently below 1.1 pmol/L is classified as corticotropin-independent and does not lead to a diagnosis of Cushing's disease. In such cases, the next step is adrenal imaging with CT. If plasma corticotropin concentrations are consistently above 3.3 pmol/L, then corticotropin-dependent Cushing's syndrome is most likely. Any intermediate values need to be cautiously interpreted and a corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) test is advised in order to confirm corticotropin dependency. If corticotropin-dependent Cushing's syndrome is determined then the next step is to distinguish between Cushing's disease and ectopic corticotropin syndrome. This is done via a combination of techniques including CRH, high-dose DST, BIPSS, and pituitary MRI.

Two dexamethasone suppression tests (DSTs) are generally used, the overnight and 48-h DSTs. For both tests, a plasma cortisol level above 50 nmol/L is indicative of Cushing's disease. However, 3-8% of patients with Cushing's disease will test negative due to a retention of dexamethasone suppression abilities. For non-Cushing or healthy patients, the false-positive rate is 30%. The 48-h DST is advantageous since it is more specific and can be done by outpatients upon proper instruction. In the high-dose 48-h DST, 2 mg of dexamethasone is given every 6 hours for 48 hours or a single dose of 8 mg is given. This test is not needed if the 48-h low-dose DST has shown suppression of cortisol by over 30%. These tests are based on the glucocorticoid sensitivity of pituitary adenomas compared to non-pituitary tumors.

Administration of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) can differentiate this condition from ectopic ACTH secretion. In a patient with Cushing's disease, the tumor cells will be stimulated to release corticotropin and elevated plasma corticotropin levels will be detected. This rarely occurs with ectopic corticotropin syndrome and thus is quite useful for distinguishing between the two conditions. If ectopic, the plasma ACTH and cortisol levels should remain unchanged; if this is pituitary related, levels of both would rise. The CRH test uses recombinant human or bovine-sequence CRH, which is administered via a 100μg intravenous bolus dose. The sensitivity of the CRH test for detecting Cushing's disease is 93% when plasma levels are measured after fifteen and thirty minutes. However, this test is used only as a last resort due to its high cost and complexity.

A CT or MRI of the pituitary may also show the ACTH secreting tumor if present. However, in 40% of Cushing's disease patients MRI is unable to detect a tumor. In one study of 261 patients with confirmed pituitary Cushing's disease, only 48% of pituitary lesions were identified using MRI prior to surgery. The average size of tumor, both those that were identified on MRI and those that were only discovered during surgery, was 6 mm.

A more accurate but invasive test used to differentiate pituitary from ectopic or adrenal Cushing's syndrome is inferior petrosal sinus sampling. A corticotropin gradient sample via BIPSS is required to confirm diagnosis when pituitary MRI imaging and biochemical diagnostic tests have been inconclusive. A basal central:peripheral ratio of over 3:1 when CRH is administered is indicative of Cushing’s disease. This test has been the gold standard for distinguishing between Cushing's disease and ectopic corticotropin syndrome. The BIPSS has a sensitivity and specificity of 94% for Cushing's disease but it is usually used as a last resort due to its invasiveness, rare but serious complications, and the expertise required to perform it.

Another diagnostic test used is the urinary free cortisol (UFC) test, which measures the excess cortisol excreted by the kidneys into the urine. Results of 4x higher cortisol levels than normal are likely to be Cushing's disease. This test should be repeated three times in order to exclude any normally occurring periods of hypercortisolism. The UFC test has a specificity of 81% and thus has a high rate of false-positives that are due to pseudo-Cushing states, sleep apnea, polycystic ovary syndrome, familial glucocorticoid resistance, and hyperthyroidism.

The late-night or midnight salivary cortisol test has been gaining support due to its ease of collection and stability at room temperature, therefore it can be assigned to outpatients. The test measures free circulating cortisol and has both a sensitivity and specificity of 95-98%. This test is especially useful for diagnosing children.

The best diagnostic tool to confirm adrenal insufficiency is the ACTH stimulation test; however, if a patient is suspected to be suffering from an acute adrenal crisis, immediate treatment with IV corticosteroids is imperative and should not be delayed for any testing, as the patient's health can deteriorate rapidly and result in death without replacing the corticosteroids.

Dexamethasone should be used as the corticosteroid if the plan is to do the ACTH stimulation test at a later time as it is the only corticosteroid that will not affect the test results.

If not performed during crisis, then labs to be run should include: random cortisol, serum ACTH, aldosterone, renin, potassium and sodium. A CT of the adrenal glands can be used to check for structural abnormalities of the adrenal glands. An MRI of the pituitary can be used to check for structural abnormalities of the pituitary. However, in order to check the functionality of the Hypothalamic Pituitary Adrenal (HPA) Axis the entire axis must be tested by way of ACTH stimulation test, CRH stimulation test and perhaps an Insulin Tolerance Test (ITT). In order to check for Addison’s Disease, the auto-immune type of primary adrenal insufficiency, labs should be drawn to check 21-hydroxylase autoantibodies.

They generally have a good prognosis. In one larger study, the 5-year and 10-year survival were over 90% and 80% respectively.

A salivary diverticulum (plural "diverticuli") is a small pouch or out-pocketing of the duct system of a major salivary gland. Such diverticuli typically cause pooling of saliva and recurrent sialadenitis, especially parotitis. A diverticulum may also cause a sialolith to form.

The condition can be diagnosed by sialography. Affected individuals may "milk" the salivary gland to encourage flow of saliva through the duct.

Ectopic salivary gland tissue which is located in sites other than the normal location is variously described as aberrant, accessory, ectopic, heterotopic or salivary gland choristoma.

Given the difficulties of a definitive pre-operative diagnosis, the clinical entity of Küttner's tumor has so far remained significantly under-reported and under-recognized. In recent times, armed with a better understanding of the occurrences and observable features of this condition, surgeons are increasingly depending upon pre-operative ultrasonography along with Fine-needle aspiration cytological (FNAC) examinations to make an accurate presumptive diagnosis, and according to one estimate, about 44% of patients undergoing submandibular resection are found to have this condition. In the ultrasonogram, Küttner's tumor is characterized by a diffuse, heterogeneous zone of echo-shadows. The FNAC finds cells greatly reduced in number (called 'paucicellularity') along with scattered tubular ducts against a backdrop of lymphoplasmacytic infiltration and fibrous depositions. There may be a reduced but moderate number of cells and ducts enveloped in fibrous sheaths, as well as fibrous proliferation of the gland's septa. The cytologic findings by themselves may not be specific, and the diagnosis requires adjunct consideration of both the ultrasonogram and clinical presentation. Application of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) has been tried to non-invasively examine the morphological variations in Küttner's tumor and differentiate them from those seen in malignant tumors; while MRI findings of the affected tissue and the pattern of cellular infiltration may offer some diagnostic clues for this condition, so far the results have been inconclusive.

The diagnosis of salivary gland tumors utilize both tissue sampling and radiographic studies. Tissue sampling procedures include fine needle aspiration (FNA) and core needle biopsy (bigger needle comparing to FNA). Both of these procedures can be done in an outpatient setting. Diagnostic imaging techniques for salivary gland tumors include ultrasound, computer tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNA), operated in experienced hands, can determine whether the tumor is malignant in nature with sensitivity around 90%. FNA can also distinguish primary salivary tumor from metastatic disease.

Core needle biopsy can also be done in outpatient setting. It is more invasive but is more accurate compared to FNA with diagnostic accuracy greater than 97%. Furthermore, core needle biopsy allows more accurate histological typing of the tumor.

In terms of imaging studies, ultrasound can determine and characterize superficial parotid tumors. Certain types of salivary gland tumors have certain sonographic characteristics on ultrasound. Ultrasound is also frequently used to guide FNA or core needle biopsy.

CT allows direct, bilateral visualization of the salivary gland tumor and provides information about overall dimension and tissue invasion. CT is excellent for demonstrating bony invasion. MRI provides superior soft tissue delineation such as perineural invasion when compared to CT only.

The treatment is simple excision and exclusion of a malignant neoplasm.

Treatment may include the following:

- Surgery with or without radiation

- Radiotherapy

Fast neutron therapy has been used successfully to treat salivary gland tumors, and has shown to be significantly more effective than photons in studies treating unresectable salivary gland tumors.

- Chemotherapy

Salivary gland atresia is congenital blockage or absence of the orifice of a major salivary gland duct or part of the duct itself.

It is a very rare condition. The submandibular salivary gland duct is usually involved, having failed to cannulate during embryological development. The condition first becomes apparent in the first few days after birth where a submandibular swelling caused by a retention cyst is noticed.

An "accessory salivary gland" is ectopic salivary gland tissue with a salivary gland duct system. The most common location of accessory salivary gland tissue is an extra major salivary gland in front of the parotid gland. It is typically about 3 cm or less in size, and drains into the parotid duct via a single tributary. Accessory parotid tissue is found in 21-56% of adults. Any disease process which affects the salivary glands, including cancer, may also occur within an accessory salivary gland tissue.

It is important to exclude a tumor which is directly extending into the ear canal from the parotid salivary gland, especially when dealing with an adenoid cystic or mucoepidermoid carcinoma. This can be eliminated by clinical or imaging studies. Otherwise, the histologic differential diagnosis includes a ceruminous adenoma (a benign ceruminous gland tumor) or a neuroendocrine adenoma of the middle ear (middle ear adenoma).

Healing is prolonged, and usually takes 6–10 weeks. The ulcer heals by secondary intention.

Patients with thyroid oncocytomas present with a thyroid nodule, usually with normal thyroid function. If the tumor is big or invasive, there may be other symptoms such as difficulty swallowing or talking.

A physician's response to detecting an adenoma in a patient will vary according to the type and location of the adenoma among other factors. Different adenomas will grow at different rates, but typically physicians can anticipate the rates of growth because some types of common adenomas progress similarly in most patients. Two common responses are removing the adenoma with surgery and then monitoring the patient according to established guidelines.

One common example of treatment is the response recommended by specialty professional organizations upon removing adenomatous polyps from a patient. In the common case of removing one or two of these polyps from the colon from a patient with no particular risk factors for cancer, thereafter the best practice is to resume surveillance colonoscopy after 5–10 years rather than repeating it more frequently than the standard recommendation.