Diagnosis may include a fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) test, computed tomography urography (CTU), magnetic resonance urography (MRU), intravenous pyelography (IVP) x-ray, ureteroscopy, or biopsy.

PUNLMPs are exophytic lesions that appear friable to the naked eye and when imaged during cystoscopy.

They are definitively diagnosed after removal by microscopic examination by pathologists.

Histologically, they have a papillary architecture with slender fibrovascular cores and rare basal mitoses. The papillae rarely fuse and uncommonly branch. Cytologically, they have uniform nuclear enlargement.

They cannot be reliably differentiated from low grade papillary urothelial carcinomas using cytology, and their diagnosis (vis-a-vis low grade papillary urothelial carcinoma) has a poor inter-rater reliability.

Pathologic grading and staging tumors are:

graded by the degree of cellular atypia (G1->G3), and

staged:

PUNLMPs are treated like non-invasive low grade papillary urothelial carcinomas, excision and regular follow-up cystoscopies.

There is a rare occurrence of a pelvic recurrence of a low-grade superficial TCC after cystectomy. Delayed presentation with recurrent low-grade urothelial carcinoma is an unusual entity and potential mechanism of traumatic implantation should be considered. Characteristically low-grade tumors are resistant to systemic chemotherapy and curative-intent surgical resection of the tumor should be considered.

The diagnosis of urachal cancer can be difficult and usually requires a multidisciplinary approach. A calcification in the midline can be detected in some patients in abdominal imaging studies. A cystoscopy is helpful in most cases. For diagnosis evaluation of a tissue biopsy is needed, which is usually obtained by transurethral resection (TURBT). Measurement of serum concentrations of CEA, CA19-9 and CA125 can be helpful in monitoring urachal cancer

The 1973 WHO grading system for TCCs (papilloma, G1, G2 or G3) is most commonly used despite being superseded by the 2004 WHO grading (papillary neoplasm of low malignant potential [PNLMP], low grade, and high grade papillary carcinoma).

The median overall survival rate is about 50% in 5 years. Worse prognostic factors include the presence of residual tumor at the margin of the resection specimen (R+), invasion of the peritoneum and metastatic disease.

Inverted papillomas are definitively diagnosed by histologic examination. However, Magnetic Resonanace Imaging (MRI) may show a characteristic feature described as a Convoluted Cerebriform Pattern (CCP). A retrospective study published in the American Journal of Neuroradiology concluded that identification of CCP by MRI in a patient with a nasal tumor made the diagnosis of Inverted papilloma quite likely. The study reported the sensitivity and specificity to be 100% and 87% respectively. CCP can be associated with other malignant tumors as well.

Treatment methods include surgery, chemotherapy, radiation therapy and medication.

Prostate cancer screening is an attempt to find unsuspected cancers. Initial screens may lead to more invasive follow-up tests such as a biopsy. Options include the digital rectal exam (DRE) and the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Such screening is controversial and, in some people, may lead to unnecessary disruption and possibly harmful consequences. Routine screening with either a DRE or PSA is not supported by the evidence as there is no mortality benefit from screening.

The United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends against the PSA test for prostate cancer screening in healthy men regardless of age. They concluded that the potential benefit of testing does not outweigh the expected harms. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shared that conclusion. The American Society of Clinical Oncology and the American College of Physicians discourages screening for those who are expected to live less than ten to fifteen years, while in those with a greater life expectancy a decision should be made by the person in question based on the potential risks and benefits. In general, they concluded, "it is uncertain whether the benefits associated with PSA testing for prostate cancer screening are worth the harms associated with screening and subsequent unnecessary treatment." American Urological Association (AUA 2013) guidelines call for weighing the benefits of preventing prostate cancer mortality in 1 man for every 1,000 men screened over a ten-year period against the known harms associated with diagnostic tests and treatment. The AUA recommends screening decisions in those 55 to 69 be based on shared decision making, and that if screening is performed it should occur no more often than every two years.

In those who are being regularly screened, 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (finasteride and dutasteride) reduce the overall risk of being diagnosed with prostate cancer; however, there is insufficient data to determine if they have an effect on the risk of death and may increase the chance of more serious cases.

Transitional refers to the histological subtype of the cancerous cells as seen under a microscope.

These aggressive tumors are generally diagnosed at advanced stages and survival is generally shorter. The prognosis of SRCC and its chemosensitivity with specific regimens are still controversial as SRCC is not specifically identified in most studies and its poor prognosis may be due to its more advanced stage. One study suggests that its dismal prognosis seems to be caused by its intrinsic tumor biology, suggesting an area for further research.

Primary signet-ring cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder is extremely rare and patient survival is very poor and occurs mainly in men ages 38 to 83. However, one such patient treated with a radical cystectomy followed by combined S-1 and Cisplatin adjuvant chemotherapy did demonstrate promising long-term survival of 90 months.

Since Krukenberg tumors are secondary (metastatic), management might logically be driven by identifying and treating the primary cancer. The optimal treatment of Krukenberg tumors is unclear. The role of surgical resection has not been adequately addressed but if metastasis is limited to the ovaries, surgery may improve survival. The role of chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy is uncertain but may sometimes be beneficial.

Cystitis glandularis is a term describing a metaplasial transformation of mucosal cells lining the urinary bladder. The main importance is in histopathology, distinguishing the metaplastic change from urothelial cell carcinoma. It is a very common finding in bladder biopsies and cystectomies, and most often found in the trigone area. Cystitis glandularis lesions are usually present as small microscopic foci; however, occasionally it can form raised intramucosal or polypoid lesions. The cystitis glandularis lesions are within the submucosa.

An inverted papilloma is a type of tumor in which surface epithelial cells grow downward into the underlying supportive tissue. It may occur in the nose and/or sinuses or in the urinary tract (bladder, renal pelvis, ureter, urethra). When it occurs in the nose or sinuses, it may cause symptoms similar to those caused by sinusitis, such as nasal congestion. When it occurs in the urinary tract, it may cause blood in the urine.

There has been debate over the exact mechanism of metastasis of the tumor cells from the stomach, appendix or colon to the ovaries. Classically it was thought that direct seeding across the abdominal cavity accounted for the spread of this tumor, but spread by way of the lymphatic is considered more likely. The average age of diagnosis of Krukenberg tumors may partly relate to the relatively increased vascularity of the ovaries.

Microscopically, Krukenberg tumors are often characterized by mucin-secreting signet-ring cells in the tissue of the ovary; when the primary tumor is discovered, the same signet-ring cells are typically found. However, other microscopic features can predominate. Krukenberg tumors are most commonly metastases from gastric cancer, particularly adenocarcinoma, or breast cancer particularly invasive lobular breast carcinoma, but they can arise in the appendix, colon, small intestine, rectum, gallbladder, and urinary bladder or gallbladder, biliary tract, pancreas, ampulla of Vater or uterine cervix.

Immunohistochemistry may help in diagnosing Krukenberg tumors from primary ovarian neoplasms but needs to be applied with discretion. For example, tumors that are immunoreactive to CEA or cytokeratin 20 (CK20) and negative for cytokeratin 7 (CK7) may be more likely to be of colorectal origin.

There are two main types of cystitis glandularis, non-mucinous and mucinous (intestinal). The difference is in the cellular production of mucin, a normal feature of colonic and intestinal epithelial cells but not of urothelial cells. Another distinction is made between focal areas and diffuse involvement of the bladder. Whereas focal areas are more common, diffuse involvement is seen in chronically irritated bladders, such as in paraplegics or those with bladder stones or indwelling catheters. Individuals with diffuse intestinal-type cystitis glandularis are at increased risk for developing bladder cancer.

Urethral diverticulum is often an incidental finding. It can be diagnosed using magnetic resonance imaging and/or micturating cystourethrography. Other studies that can be used to diagnose urethral diverticulum include intravenous urography, urethroscopy, and/or ultrasound. Conditions that should be distinguished from urethral diverticulum in a differential diagnosis include overactive bladder, Gartner's duct cyst, Gartner's duct abscess, ectopic caeco-ureterocele, interstitial cystitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, endometriosis, and cancer.

The following are the Amsterdam criteria in identifying high-risk candidates for molecular genetic testing:

"Amsterdam Criteria (all bullet points must be fulfilled):"

- Three or more family members with a confirmed diagnosis of colorectal cancer, one of whom is a first degree (parent, child, sibling) relative of the other two

- Two successive affected generations

- One or more colon cancers diagnosed under age 50 years

- Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) has been excluded

"Amsterdam Criteria II (all bullet points must be fulfilled):"

- Three or more family members with HNPCC-related cancers, one of whom is a first-degree relative of the other two

- Two successive affected generations

- One or more of the HNPCC-related cancers diagnosed under age 50 years

- Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) has been excluded

Genetic testing for mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes is expensive and time-consuming, so researchers have proposed techniques for identifying cancer patients who are most likely to be HNPCC carriers as ideal candidates for genetic testing. The Amsterdam Criteria (see below) are useful, but do not identify up to 30% of potential Lynch syndrome carriers. In colon cancer patients, pathologists can measure microsatellite instability in colon tumor specimens, which is a surrogate marker for DNA mismatch repair gene dysfunction. If there is microsatellite instability identified, there is a higher likelihood for a Lynch syndrome diagnosis. Recently, researchers combined microsatellite instability (MSI) profiling and immunohistochemistry testing for DNA mismatch repair gene expression and identified an extra 32% of Lynch syndrome carriers who would have been missed on MSI profiling alone. Currently, this combined immunohistochemistry and MSI profiling strategy is the most advanced way of identifying candidates for genetic testing for the Lynch syndrome.

Genetic counseling and genetic testing are recommended for families that meet the Amsterdam criteria, preferably before the onset of colon cancer.

The diagnosis of bladder stone includes urinalysis, ultrasonography, x rays or cystoscopy (inserting a small thin camera into the urethra and viewing the bladder). The intravenous pyelogram can also be used to assess the presence of kidney stones. This test involves injecting a radiocontrast agent which is passed into the urinary system. X-ray images are then obtained every few minutes to determine if there is any obstruction to the contrast as it is excreted into the bladder. Today, intravenous pyelogram has been replaced at many health centers by CT scans. CT scans are more sensitive and can identify very small stones not seen by other tests.

Urinary catheters should be inserted using aseptic technique and sterile equipment (including sterile gloves, drape, sponges, antiseptic and sterile solution), particularly in an acute care setting. Hands should be washed before and after catheter insertion. Overall, catheter use should be minimized in all patients, particularly those at higher risk of CAUTI and mortality (e.g. the elderly or those with impaired immunity).

The symptoms of IC/BPS are often misdiagnosed as a urinary tract infection. However, IC/BPS has not been shown to be caused by a bacterial infection and antibiotics are an ineffective treatment. IC/BPS is commonly misdiagnosed as chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome (CP/CPPS) in men, and endometriosis and uterine fibroids (in women).

The clinical diagnosis of BPH is based on a history of LUTS (lower urinary tract symptoms), a digital rectal exam, and exclusion of other causes of similar signs and symptoms. The degree of LUTS does not necessarily correspond to the size of the prostate. An enlarged prostate gland on rectal examination that is symmetric and smooth supports a diagnosis of BPH. However, if the prostate gland feels asymmetrical, firm, or nodular, this raises concern for prostate cancer.

Urinalysis is typically performed when LUTS are present and BPH is suspected to evaluate for signs of a urinary tract infection, glucose in the urine (suggestive of diabetes), or protein in the urine (suggestive of kidney disease). Bloodwork including kidney function tests and prostate specific antigen (PSA) are often ordered to evaluate for kidney damage and prostate cancer, respectively. However, checking blood PSA levels for prostate cancer screening is controversial and not necessarily indicated in every evaluation for BPH. Benign prostatic hyperplasia and prostate cancer are both capable of increasing blood PSA levels and PSA elevation is unable to differentiate these two conditions well. If PSA levels are checked and are high, then further investigation is warranted. Measures including PSA density, free PSA, rectal examination, and transrectal ultrasonography may be helpful in determining whether a PSA increase is due to BPH or prostate cancer. Ultrasound examination of the testes, prostate, and kidneys is often performed, again to rule out cancer and hydronephrosis.

Validated questionnaires such as the American Urological Association Symptom Index (AUA-SI), the International Prostate Symptom Score (I-PSS), and more recently the UWIN score (urgency, weak stream, incomplete emptying, and nocturia) are useful aids to making the diagnosis of BPH and quantifying the severity of symptoms.