When physical examination of the newborn shows signs of a vertically transmitted infection, the examiner may test blood, urine, and spinal fluid for evidence of the infections listed above. Diagnosis can be confirmed by culture of one of the specific pathogens or by increased levels of IgM against the pathogen.

Some vertically transmitted infections, such as toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can be effectively treated with antibiotics if the mother is diagnosed early in her pregnancy. Many viral vertically transmitted infections have no effective treatment, but some, notably rubella and varicella-zoster, can be prevented by vaccinating the mother prior to pregnancy.

If the mother has active herpes simplex (as may be suggested by a pap test), delivery by Caesarean section can prevent the newborn from contact, and consequent infection, with this virus.

IgG antibody may play crucial role in prevention of intrauterine infections and extensive research is going on for developing IgG-based therapies for treatment and vaccination.

Neonatal sepsis of the newborn is an infection that has spread through the entire body. The inflammatory response to this systematic infection can be as serious as the infection itself. In infants that weigh under 1500 g, sepsis is the most common cause of death. Three to four percent of infants per 1000 births contract sepsis. The mortality rate from sepsis is near 25%. Infected sepsis in an infant can be identified by culturing the blood and spinal fluid and if suspected, intravenous antibiotics are usually started. Lumbar puncture is controversial because in some cases it has found not to be necessary while concurrently, without it estimates of missing up to one third of infants with meningitis is predicted.

Symptoms and the isolation of the virus pathogen the upper respiratory tract is diagnostic. Virus identification is specific immunologic methods and PCR. The presence of the virus can be rapidly confirmed by the detection of the virus antigen. The methods and materials used for identifying the RSV virus has a specificity and sensitivity approaching 85% to 95%. Not all studies confirm this sensitivity. Antigen detection has comparatively lower sensitivity rates that approach 65% to 75%.

The important factors for successful prevention of GBS-EOD using IAP and the universal screening approach are:

- Reach most pregnant women for antenatal screens

- Proper sample collection

- Using an appropriate procedure for detecting GBS

- Administering a correct IAP to GBS carriers

Most cases of GBS-EOD occur in term infants born to mothers who screened negative for GBS colonization and in preterm infants born to mothers who were not screened, though some false-negative results observed in the GBS screening tests can be due to the test limitations and to the acquisition of GBS between the time of screening and delivery. These data show that improvements in specimen collection and processing methods for detecting GBS are still necessary in some settings. False-negative screening test, along with failure to receive IAP in women delivering preterm with unknown GBS colonization status, and the administration of inappropriate IAP agents to penicillin-allergic women account for most missed opportunities for prevention of cases of GBS-EOD.

GBS-EOD infections presented in infants whose mothers had been screened as GBS culture-negative are particularly worrying, and may be caused by incorrect sample collection, delay in processing the samples, incorrect laboratory techniques, recent antibiotic use, or GBS colonization after the screening was carried out.

No current culture-based test is both accurate enough and fast enough to be recommended for detecting GBS once labour starts. Plating of swab samples requires time for the bacteria to grow, meaning that this is unsuitable as an intrapartum point-of-care test.

Alternative methods to detect GBS in clinical samples (as vaginorectal swabs) rapidly have been developed, such are the methods based on nucleic acid amplification tests, such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR) tests, and DNA hybridization probes. These tests can also be used to detect GBS directly from broth media, after the enrichment step, avoiding the subculture of the incubated enrichment broth to an appropriate agar plate.

Testing women for GBS colonization using vaginal or rectal swabs at 35–37 weeks of gestation and culturing them in enriched media is not as rapid as a PCR test that would check whether the pregnant woman is carrying GBS at delivery. And PCR tests, allow starting IAP on admission to the labour ward in those women in whom it is not known if they are GBS carriers or not. PCR testing for GBS carriage could, in the future, be sufficiently accurate to guide IAP. However, the PCR technology to detect GBS must be improved and simplified to make the method cost-effective and fully useful as point-of-care testing]] to be carried out in the labour ward (bedside testing). These tests still cannot replace antenatal culture for the accurate detection of GBS carriers.

The CDC recommends screening some pregnant women even if they do not have symptoms of infection. Pregnant women who have traveled to affected areas should be tested between two and twelve weeks after their return from travel. Due to the difficulties with ordering and interpreting tests for Zika virus, the CDC also recommends that healthcare providers contact their local health department for assistance. For women living in affected areas, the CDC has recommended testing at the first prenatal visit with a doctor as well as in the mid-second trimester, though this may be adjusted based on local resources and the local burden of Zika virus. Additional testing should be done if there are any signs of Zika virus disease. Women with positive test results for Zika virus infection should have their fetus monitored by ultrasound every three to four weeks to monitor fetal anatomy and growth.

For infants with suspected congenital Zika virus disease, the CDC recommends testing with both serologic and molecular assays such as RT-PCR, IgM ELISA and plaque reduction neutralization test (PRNT). RT-PCR of the infants serum and urine should be performed in the first two days of life. Newborns with a mother who was potentially exposed and who have positive blood tests, microcephaly or intracranial calcifications should have further testing including a thorough physical investigation for neurologic abnormalities, dysmorphic features, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and rash or other skin lesions. Other recommended tests are cranial ultrasound, hearing evaluation, and eye examination. Testing should be done for any abnormalities encountered as well as for other congenital infections such as syphilis, toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus infection, lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus infection, and herpes simplex virus. Some tests should be repeated up to 6 months later as there can be delayed effects, particularly with hearing.

Syphilis is difficult to diagnose clinically early in its presentation. Confirmation is either via blood tests or direct visual inspection using microscopy. Blood tests are more commonly used, as they are easier to perform. Diagnostic tests are unable to distinguish between the stages of the disease.

Dark ground microscopy of serous fluid from a chancre may be used to make an immediate diagnosis. Hospitals do not always have equipment or experienced staff members, and testing must be done within 10 minutes of acquiring the sample. Sensitivity has been reported to be nearly 80%; therefore the test can only be used to confirm a diagnosis, but not to rule one out. Two other tests can be carried out on a sample from the chancre: direct fluorescent antibody testing and nucleic acid amplification tests. Direct fluorescent testing uses antibodies tagged with fluorescein, which attach to specific syphilis proteins, while nucleic acid amplification uses techniques, such as the polymerase chain reaction, to detect the presence of specific syphilis genes. These tests are not as time-sensitive, as they do not require living bacteria to make the diagnosis.

Rubella virus specific IgM antibodies are present in people recently infected by rubella virus, but these antibodies can persist for over a year, and a positive test result needs to be interpreted with caution. The presence of these antibodies along with, or a short time after, the characteristic rash confirms the diagnosis.

Rubella infection of children and adults is usually mild, self-limiting and often asymptomatic. The prognosis in children born with CRS is poor.

Although it is possible to test for HPV DNA in other kinds of infections, there are no FDA-approved tests for general screening in the United States or tests approved by the Canadian government, since the testing is inconclusive and considered medically unnecessary.

Genital warts are the only visible sign of low-risk genital HPV and can be identified with a visual check. These visible growths, however, are the result of non-carcinogenic HPV types. Five percent acetic acid (vinegar) is used to identify both warts and squamous intraepithelial neoplasia (SIL) lesions with limited success by causing abnormal tissue to appear white, but most doctors have found this technique helpful only in moist areas, such as the female genital tract. At this time, HPV test for males are used only in research.

Research into testing for HPV by antibody presence has been done. The approach is looking for an immune response in blood, which would contain antibodies for HPV if the patient is HPV positive. The reliability of such tests hasn't been proven, as there hasn't been a FDA approved product as of March 2014; testing by blood would be a less invasive test for screening purposes.

According to the National Cancer Institute, “The most common test detects DNA from several high-risk HPV types, but it cannot identify the type(s) that are present. Another test is specific for DNA from HPV types 16 and 18, the two types that cause most HPV-associated cancers. A third test can detect DNA from several high-risk HPV types and can indicate whether HPV-16 or HPV-18 is present. A fourth test detects RNA from the most common high-risk HPV types. These tests can detect HPV infections before cell abnormalities are evident.

“Theoretically, the HPV DNA and RNA tests could be used to identify HPV infections in cells taken from any part of the body. However, the tests are approved by the FDA for only two indications: for follow-up testing of women who seem to have abnormal Pap test results and for cervical cancer screening in combination with a Pap test among women over age 30.”

In April 2011, the Food and Drug Administration approved the cobas HPV Test, manufactured by Roche. This cervical cancer screening test “specifically identifies types HPV 16 and HPV 18 while concurrently detecting the rest of the high risk types (31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 66 and 68).”

The cobas HPV Test was evaluated in the ATHENA trial, which studied more than 47,000 U.S. women 21 years old and older undergoing routine cervical cancer screening. Results from the ATHENA trial demonstrated that 1 in 10 women, age 30 and older, who tested positive for HPV 16 and/or 18, actually had cervical pre-cancer even though they showed normal results with the Pap test.

In March 2003, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved the Hybrid Capture 2 test manufactured by Qiagen/Digene, which is a "hybrid-capture" test as an adjunct to Pap testing. The test may be performed during a routine Pap smear. It detects the DNA of 13 "high-risk" HPV types that most commonly affect the cervix, it does not determine the specific HPV types. Hybrid Capture 2 is the most widely studied commercially available HPV assay and the majority of the evidence for HPV primary testing in population-based screening programs is based on the Hybrid Capture 2 assay.

The recent outcomes in the identification of molecular pathways involved in cervical cancer provide helpful information about novel bio- or oncogenic markers that allow monitoring of these essential molecular events in cytological smears, histological, or cytological specimens. These bio- or onco- markers are likely to improve the detection of lesions that have a high risk of progression in both primary screening and triage settings. E6 and E7 mRNA detection PreTect HPV-Proofer (HPV OncoTect) or p16 cell-cycle protein levels are examples of these new molecular markers. According to published results, these markers, which are highly sensitive and specific, allow to identify cells going through malignant transformation.

In October 2011 the US Food and Drug Administration approved the Aptima HPV Assay test for RNA created when and if any HPV strains start creating cancers (see virology).

The vulva/vagina has been sampled with Dacron swabs and shows more HPV than the cervix. Among women who were HPV positive in either place, 90% were positive in the vulvovaginal region, 46% in the cervix.

Doxycycline is the drug of choice, but azithromycin is also used as a five-day course rather than a single dose that would be used to treat "Chlamydia" infection; streptomycin is an alternative, but is less popular because it must be injected. Penicillins are ineffective — "U. urealyticum" does not have a cell wall, which is the drug's main target.

Vertical transmission is a significant contributor of new HBV cases each year, with 35–50% of transmission from mother to neonate in endemic countries. Vertical transmission occurs largely via a neonate's exposure to maternal blood and vaginal secretions during birth. While the risk of progression to chronic infection is approximately 5% among adults who contract the virus, it is as high as 95% among neonates subject to vertical transmission. The risk of viral transmission is approximately 10–20% when maternal blood is positive for HBsAg, and up to 90% when also positive for HBeAg.

Given the high risk of perinatal transmission, the CDC recommends screening all pregnant women for HBV at their first prenatal visit. It is safe for non-immune pregnant women to receive the HBV vaccine. Based on the limited available evidence, the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) recommends antiviral therapy in pregnant women whose viral load exceeds 200,000 IU/mL. A growing body of evidence shows that antiviral therapy initiated in the third trimester significantly reduces transmission to the neonate. A systematic review of the Antiretroviral Pregnancy Registry database found that there was no increased risk of congenital anomalies with Tenofovir; for this reason, along with its potency and low risk of resistance, the AASLD recommends this drug. A 2010 systematic review and meta-analysis found that Lamivudine initiated early in the third trimester also significantly reduced mother-to-child transmission of HBV, without any known adverse effects.

The ACOG states that the evidence available does not suggest any particular mode of delivery (i.e. vaginal vs. cesarean) is better at reducing vertical transmission in mothers with HBV.

The WHO and CDC recommend that neonates born to mothers with HBV should receive hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) as well as the HBV vaccine within 12 hours of birth. For infants who have received HBIG and the HBV vaccine, breastfeeding is safe.

The management of PROM remains controversial, and depends largely on the gestational age of the fetus and other complicating factors. The risks of quick delivery (induction of labor) vs. watchful waiting in each case is carefully considered before deciding on a course of action.

As of 2012, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists advised, based on expert opinion and not clinical evidence, that attempted delivery during maternal instability, increases the rates of both fetal death and maternal death, unless the source of instability is an intrauterine infection.

In all women with PROM, the age of the fetus, its position in the uterus, and its wellbeing should be evaluated. This can be done with ultrasound, electronic fetal heart rate monitoring, and uterine activity monitoring. This will also show whether or not uterine contractions are happening which may be a sign that labor is starting. Signs and symptoms of infection should be closely monitored, and, if not already done, a group B streptococcus (GBS) culture should be collected.

At any age, if the fetal well-being appears to be compromised, or if intrauterine infection is suspected, the baby should be delivered quickly by artificially stimulating labor (induction of labor).

Infection in the newborn is accompanied by a strong immune response and is correlated with the need for prolonged mechanical ventilation.

Infection with "U. urealyticum" in pregnancy and birth can be complicated by chorioamnionitis, stillbirth, premature birth, and, in the perinatal period, pneumonia, bronchopulmonary dysplasia and meningitis. "U. urealyticum" has been found to be present in amniotic fluid in women who have had a premature birth with intact fetal membranes.

"U. urealyticum" has been noted as one of the infectious causes of sterile pyuria. It increases the morbidity as a cause of neonatal infections. It is associated with premature birth, preterm rupture of membranes, preterm labor, cesarean section, placental inflammation, congenital pneumonia, bacteremia, meningitis, fetal lung injury and death of infant. "Ureaplasma urealyticum" is associated with miscarriage.

A Canadian paper published in 2015 used a mouse model of chronic hepatitis B infection and showed that interfering with certain proteins can facilitate clearance of the virus which may have implications for human disease.

Before 34 weeks, the fetus is at a much higher risk of the complications of prematurity. Therefore, as long as the fetus is doing well, and there are no signs of infection or placental abruption, watchful waiting (expectant management) is recommended. The younger the fetus, the longer it takes for labor to start on its own, but most women will deliver within a week. Waiting usually requires a woman to stay in the hospital so that health care providers can watch her carefully for infection, placental abruption, umbilical cord compression, or any other fetal emergency that would require quick delivery by induction of labor.

In 2017, a review of watchful waiting vs the early birth strategy was conducted to ascertain which was associated with a lower overall risk. Focusing on the 24–37 week range, the review analysed 12 randomised controlled trials from the "Cochrane Pregnancy and Childbirth's Trials Register", concluding that "In women with PPROM before 37 weeks' gestation with no contraindications to continuing the pregnancy, a policy of expectant management with careful monitoring was associated with better outcomes for the mother and baby".There is believed to be a correlation between volume of amniotic fluid retained and neonatal outcomes before 26 weeks gestation. Amniotic fluid levels are an important consideration when debating expectant management vs clinical intervention, as low levels, or oligohydramnios, can result in lung and limb abnormalities. Additionally, labor and infection are less likely to occur when there are sufficient levels of amniotic fluid remaining in the uterus.

Some disorders and conditions can mean that pregnancy is considered high-risk (about 6-8% of pregnancies in the USA) and in extreme cases may be contraindicated. High-risk pregnancies are the main focus of doctors specialising in maternal-fetal medicine.

Serious pre-existing disorders which can reduce a woman's physical ability to survive pregnancy include a range of congenital defects (that is, conditions with which the woman herself was born, for example, those of the heart or , some of which are listed above) and diseases acquired at any time during the woman's life.