In the United States, testing for "horizontal gaze nystagmus" is one of a battery of field sobriety tests used by police officers to determine whether a suspect is driving under the influence of alcohol. The test involves observation of the suspect's pupil as it follows a moving object, noting

1. lack of smooth pursuit,

2. distinct and sustained nystagmus at maximum deviation, and

3. the onset of nystagmus prior to 45 degrees.

The horizontal gaze nystagmus test has been highly criticized and major errors in the testing methodology and analysis found. However, the validity of the horizontal gaze nystagmus test for use as a field sobriety test for persons with a blood alcohol level between 0.04–0.08 is supported by peer reviewed studies and has been found to be a more accurate indication of blood alcohol content than other standard field sobriety tests.

Nystagmus is very noticeable but rarely recognized. Nystagmus can be clinically investigated by using a number of non-invasive standard tests. The simplest one is the caloric reflex test, in which one ear canal is irrigated with warm or cold water or air. The temperature gradient provokes the stimulation of the horizontal semicircular canal and the consequent nystagmus.

Nystagmus is often very commonly present with Chiari malformation.

The resulting movement of the eyes may be recorded and quantified by special devices called electronystagmograph (ENG), a form of electrooculography (an electrical method of measuring eye movements using external electrodes), or even less invasive devices called videonystagmograph (VNG), a form of video-oculography (VOG) (a video-based method of measuring eye movements using external small cameras built into head masks) by an audiologist. Special swinging chairs with electrical controls can be used to induce rotatory nystagmus.

Over the past forty years, objective eye-movement-recording techniques have been applied to the study of nystagmus, and the results have led to a greater accuracy and understanding of the condition.

Orthoptists may also use an optokinetic drum, or electrooculography to assess a patient's eye movements.

Nystagmus can be caused by subsequent foveation of moving objects, pathology, sustained rotation or substance use. Nystagmus is not to be confused with other superficially similar-appearing disorders of eye movements (saccadic oscillations) such as opsoclonus or ocular flutter that are composed purely of fast-phase (saccadic) eye movements, while nystagmus is characterised by the combination of a smooth pursuit, which usually acts to take the eye off the point of regard, interspersed with the saccadic movement that serves to bring the eye back on target. Without the use of objective recording techniques, it may be very difficult to distinguish between these conditions.

In medicine, the presence of nystagmus can be benign, or it can indicate an underlying visual or neurological problem.

If an optokinetic drum is available, rotate the drum in front of the patient. Ask the patient to look at the drum as you rotate it slowly. If an optokinetic drum is not available, move a strip of paper with alternating 2-inch black and white strips across the patient's visual field. Pass it in front of the patient's eye at reading distance while instructing the patient to look at it as it rapidly moves by. With normal vision, a nystagmus develops in both adults and infants. The nystagmus consists of initial slow phases in the direction of the stimulus (smooth pursuits), followed by fast, corrective phases (saccade). Presence of nystagmus indicates an intact visual pathway.

Another effective method is to hold a mirror in front of the patient and slowly rotate the mirror to either side of the patient. The patient with an intact visual pathway will maintain eye contact with herself or himself. This compelling optokinetic stimulus forces reflex slow eye movements.

OKN can be used as a crude assessment of the visual system, particularly in infants. When factitious blindness or malingering is suspected, check for optokinetic nystagmus to determine whether there is an intact visual pathway.

The optokinetic response is a combination of a slow-phase and fast-phase eye movements. It is seen when an individual follows a moving object with their eyes, which then moves out of the field of vision at which point their eye moves back to the position it was in when it first saw the object. The reflex develops at about 6 months of age.

Optokinetic nystagmus (OKN) is nystagmus that occurs in response to a rotation movement. It is present normally. The optokinetic response allows the eye to follow objects in motion when the head remains stationary (e.g., observing individual telephone poles on the side of the road as one travels by them in a car, or observing stationary objects while walking past them).

Since this condition is usually coupled with other neurological disorders or deficits, there is no known cure for cerebral polyopia. However, measures can be taken to reduce the effects of associated disorders, which have proven to reduce the effects of polyopia. In a case of occipital lobe epilepsy, the patient experienced polyopia. Following administration of valproate sodium to reduce headaches, the patient’s polyopia was reduced to palinopsia. Further, after administering the anticonvulsant drug Gabapentin in addition to valproate sodium, the effects of palinopsia were decreased, as visual perseveration is suppressed by this anticonvulsant drug. Thus, in cases of epilepsy, anticonvulsant drugs may prove to reduce the effects of polyopia and palinopsia, a topic of which should be further studied.

In other cases of polyopia, it is necessary to determine all other present visual disturbances before attempting treatment. Neurological imaging can be performed to determine if there are present occipital or temporal lobe infarctions that may be causing the polyopia. CT scans are relatively insensitive to the presence of cerebral lesions, so other neurological imaging such as PET and MRI may be performed. The presence of seizures and epilepsy may also be assessed through EEG. In addition, motor visual function should be assessed through examination of pupillary reactions, ocular motility, optokinetic nystagmus, slit-lamp examination, visual field examination, visual acuity, stereo vision, bimicroscopic examination, and funduscopic examination. Once the performance of such functions have been assessed, a plan for treatment can follow accordingly. Further research should be conducted to determine if the treatment of associated neurological disturbances can reduce the effects of polyopia.

Tests of vestibular system (balance) function include electronystagmography (ENG), Videonystagmograph (VNG), rotation tests, Computerized Dynamic Posturography (CDP), and Caloric reflex test.

Tests of auditory system (hearing) function include pure-tone audiometry, speech audiometry, acoustic-reflex, electrocochleography (ECoG), otoacoustic emissions (OAE), and auditory brainstem response test (ABR; also known as BER, BSER, or BAER).

Other diagnostic tests include magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and computerized axial tomography (CAT, or CT).

The eye findings of Parinaud's Syndrome generally improve slowly over months, especially with resolution of the causative factor; continued resolution after the first 3–6 months of onset is uncommon. However, rapid resolution after normalization of intracranial pressure following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt has been reported.

Treatment is primarily directed towards etiology of the dorsal midbrain syndrome. A thorough workup, including neuroimaging is essential to rule out anatomic lesions or other causes of this syndrome. Visually significant upgaze palsy can be relieved with bilateral inferior rectus recessions. Retraction nystagmus and convergence movement are usually improved with this procedure as well.

According to a Cochrane review of 2012, controversies remain regarding type of surgery, non-surgical intervention and age of intervention.

The aims of treatment are as follows:

The elimination of any amblyopia

A cosmetically acceptable ocular alignment

long term stability of eye position

binocular cooperation.

Controversy has arisen regarding the selection and planning of surgical procedures, the timing of surgery and about what constitutes a favourable outcome.

1. Selection and planning

Some ophthalmologists, notably Ing and Helveston, favour a prescribed approach often involving multiple surgical episodes whereas others prefer to aim for full alignment of the eyes in one procedure and let the number of muscles operated upon during this procedure be determined by the size of the squint.

2. Timing and outcome

This debate relates to the technical anatomical difficulties of operating on the very young versus the possibility of an increased potential for binocularity associated with early surgery. Infants are often operated upon at the age of six to nine months of age and in some cases even earlier at three or four months of age. Some emphasize the importance of intervening early such as to keep the duration of the patient's abnormal visual experience to a minimum. Advocates of early surgery believe that those who have their surgery before the age of one are more likely to be able to use both eyes together post-operatively.

A Dutch study (ELISSS) compared early with late surgery in a prospective, controlled, non-randomized, multicenter trial and reported that:

"Children operated early had better gross stereopsis at age six as compared to children operated late. They had been operated more frequently, however, and a substantial number of children in both [originally-recruited] groups had not been operated at all."

Other studies also report better results with early surgery, notably Birch and Stager and Murray et al. but do not comment on the number of operations undertaken. A recent study on 38 children concluded that surgery for infantile esotropia is most likely to result in measureable stereopsis if patient age at alignment is not more than 16 months.

Another study found that for children with infantile esotropia early surgery decreases the risk of dissociated vertical deviation developing after surgery.

Aside the strabismus itself, there are other aspects or conditions that appear to improve after surgery or botulinum toxin eye alignment. Study outcomes have indicated that after surgery the child catches up in development of fine-motor skills (such as grasping a toy and handling a bottle) and of large-muscle skills (such as sitting, standing, and walking) in case a developmental delay was present before. Evidence also indicates that as of the age of six, strabismic children become less accepted by their peers, leaving them potentially exposed to social exclusion starting at this age unless their eye positioning is corrected by this time ("see also:" Psychosocial effects of strabismus).

On photographs taken using a flash, instead of the familiar red-eye effect, leukocoria can cause a bright white reflection in an affected eye. Leukocoria may appear also in low indirect light, similar to eyeshine.

Leukocoria can be detected by a routine eye exam (see Ophthalmoscopy). For screening purposes, the red reflex test is used. In this test, when a light is shone briefly through the pupil, an orange red reflection is normal. A white reflection is leukocoria.

A mydriatic is an agent that induces dilation of the pupil. Drugs such as tropicamide are used in medicine to permit examination of the retina and other deep structures of the eye, and also to reduce painful ciliary muscle spasm (see cycloplegia). Phenylephrine (e.g. Cyclomydril) is used if strong mydriasis is needed for a surgical intervention. One effect of administration of a mydriatic is intolerance to bright light (photophobia). Purposefully-induced mydriasis via mydriatics is also used as a diagnostic test for Horner's syndrome.

There is currently no definitive way to cure the sneezing fits brought on by the photic sneeze reflex. Photic sneezing can be combated by shielding one's eyes with hats or sunglasses. There are many remedial fixes for sneezing, such as placing a finger horizontally below the nose or holding the nose closed when the beginnings of a sneeze are felt.

Another remedy is to deliberately cause the onset of sneezing in a safe environment before moving into an environment where the condition could be a danger. The person will then be protected as long as the refractory period lasts.

The most helpful way to avoid the risks stated above is to be aware of any inclination to sneeze in response to strange stimuli. If a pilot knows he or she is at risk for experiencing a photic sneeze during a flight, he or she can wear polarized goggles to block the sun, or at the very least be prepared for a sneeze and have measures planned to minimize the risk from such a sneeze. Any patient with a history of uncontrollable sneezing who requires periocular surgery should tell the doctor or anesthesiologist, so that they can take appropriate measures to minimize the risk of injury in case of a sneeze during the surgical procedure. People who know they have a tendency to experience sneezing fits after consuming a large meal can make an effort to reduce the size of their meals, since snatiation seems to occur only as a result of an extremely full stomach.

The difficulty of making the right vestibular diagnosis is reflected in the fact that in some populations, more than one third of the patients with a vestibular disease consult more than one physician – in some cases up to more than fifteen.

Diagnosis of a balance disorder is complicated because there are many kinds of balance disorders and because other medical conditions—including ear infections, blood pressure changes, and some vision problems—and some medications may contribute to a balance disorder. A person experiencing dizziness should see a physiotherapist or physician for an evaluation. A physician can assess for a medical disorder, such as a stroke or infection, if indicated. A physiotherapist can assess balance or a dizziness disorder and provide specific treatment.

The primary physician may request the opinion of an otolaryngologist to help evaluate a balance problem. An otolaryngologist is a physician/surgeon who specializes in diseases and disorders of the ear, nose, throat, head, and neck, sometimes with expertise in balance disorders. He or she will usually obtain a detailed medical history and perform a physical examination to start to sort out possible causes of the balance disorder. The physician may require tests and make additional referrals to assess the cause and extent of the disruption of balance. The kinds of tests needed will vary based on the patient's symptoms and health status. Because there are so many variables, not all patients will require every test.

Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) or Marcus Gunn pupil is a medical sign observed during the swinging-flashlight test whereupon the patient's pupils constrict less (therefore appearing to dilate) when a bright light is swung from the unaffected eye to the affected eye. The affected eye still senses the light and produces pupillary sphincter constriction to some degree, albeit reduced.

The most common cause of Marcus Gunn pupil is a lesion of the optic nerve (between the retina and the optic chiasm) or severe retinal disease. It is named after Scottish ophthalmologist Robert Marcus Gunn.

A second common cause of Marcus Gunn pupil is a contralateral optic tract lesion, due to the different contributions of the intact nasal and temporal hemifields.

While this phenomenon is poorly understood, recent research has shown that antihistamines being used to treat rhinitis due to seasonal allergies may also reduce the occurrence of photic sneezes in people affected by both conditions.

Those affected by photic sneezing may find relief by shielding their eyes and/or faces with hats, scarves, and sunglasses.

The Marcus Gunn pupil is a relative afferent pupillary defect indicating a decreased pupillary response to light in the affected eye.

In the swinging flashlight test, a light is alternately shone into the left and right eyes. A normal response would be equal constriction of both pupils, regardless of which eye the light is directed at. This indicates an intact direct and consensual pupillary light reflex. When the test is performed in an eye with an afferent pupillary defect, light directed in the affected eye will cause only mild constriction of both pupils (due to decreased response to light from the afferent defect), while light in the unaffected eye will cause a normal constriction of both pupils (due to an intact efferent path, and an intact consensual pupillary reflex). Thus, light shone in the affected eye will produce less pupillary constriction than light shone in the unaffected eye.

A Marcus Gunn pupil is distinguished from a total CN II lesion, in which the affected eye perceives "no" light. In that case, shining the light in the affected eye produces no effect.

Anisocoria is absent. A Marcus Gunn pupil is seen, among other conditions, in optic neuritis. It is also common in retrobulbar optic neuritis due to multiple sclerosis but only for 3–4 weeks, until the visual acuity begins to improve in 1–2 weeks and may return to normal.

The most important factor in diagnosing a patient with vertiginous epilepsy is the subject’s detailed description of the episode. However, due to the associated symptoms of the syndrome a subject may have difficulty remembering the specifics of the experience. This makes it difficult for a physician to confirm the diagnosis with absolute certainty. A questionnaire may be used to help patients, especially children, describe their symptoms. Clinicians may also consult family members for assistance in diagnosis, relying on their observations to help understand the episodes. In addition to the description of the event, neurological, physical and hematologic examinations are completed to assist in diagnosis. For proper diagnosis, an otological exam (examination of the ear) should also be completed to rule out disorders of the inner ear, which could also be responsible for manifestations of vertigo. This may include an audiological assessment and vestibular function test. During diagnosis, history-taking is essential in determining possible causes of vertiginous epilepsy as well as tracking the progress of the disorder over time.

Other means used in diagnosis of vertiginous epilepsy include:

- Electroencephalography (EEG)

- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

- Positron emission tomography (PET)

- Neuropsychological testing

The EEG measures electrical activity in the brain, allowing a physician to identify any unusual patterns. While EEGs are good for identifying abnormal brain activity is it not helpful in localizing where the seizure originates because they spread so quickly across the brain. MRIs are used to look for masses or lesions in the temporal lobe of the brain, indicating possible tumors or cancer as the cause of the seizures. When using a PET scan, a physician is looking to detect abnormal blood flow and glucose metabolism in the brain, which is visible between seizures, to indicate the region of origin.

Alexanders law refers to spontaneous nystagmus that occurs after an acute unilateral vestibular loss. It was first described in 1912 and has three elements to explain how the vestibulo-ocular reflex responds to an acute vestibular insult. The first element says that spontaneous nystagmus after an acute vestibular impairment has the fast phase directed toward the healthy ear. The direction of the nystagmus, by convention, is named for the fast phase, so the spontaneous nystagmus is directed toward the healthy ear. The second element says nystagmus is greatest when gaze is directed toward the healthy ear, is attentuated at central gaze and may be absent when gaze is directed toward the impaired ear. The third element says that spontaneous nystagmus with central gaze is augmented when vision is denied. This became apparent with the implementation of electrographic testing.

Alexander's law states that in individuals with nystagmus, the amplitude of the nystagmus increases when the eye moves in the direction of the fast phase (saccade).

It is manifested during spontaneous nystagmus in a patient with a vestibular lesion. The nystagmus becomes more intense when the patient looks in the quick-phase than in the slow-phase direction.

The law was named after Gustav Alexander who described it in 1912.

Cerebral diplopia or polyopia describes seeing two or more images arranged in ordered rows, columns, or diagonals after fixation on a stimulus. The polyopic images occur monocular bilaterally (one eye open on both sides) and binocularly (both eyes open), differentiating it from ocular diplopia or polyopia. The number of duplicated images can range from one to hundreds. Some patients report difficulty in distinguishing the replicated images from the real images, while others report that the false images differ in size, intensity, or color. Cerebral polyopia is sometimes confused with palinopsia (visual trailing), in which multiple images appear while watching an object. However, in cerebral polyopia, the duplicated images are of a stationary object which are perceived even after the object is removed from the visual field. Movement of the original object causes all of the duplicated images to move, or the polyopic images disappear during motion. In palinoptic polyopia, movement causes each polyopic image to leave an image in its wake, creating hundreds of persistent images (entomopia).

Infarctions, tumors, multiple sclerosis, trauma, encephalitis, migraines, and seizures have been reported to cause cerebral polyopia. Cerebral polyopia has been reported in extrastriate visual cortex lesions, which is important for detecting motion, orientation, and direction. Cerebral polyopia often occurs in homonymous field deficits, suggesting deafferentation hyperexcitability could be a possible mechanism, similar to visual release hallucinations (Charles Bonnet syndrome).

Oscillopsia is a visual disturbance in which objects in the visual field appear to oscillate. The severity of the effect may range from a mild blurring to rapid and periodic jumping. Oscillopsia is an incapacitating condition experienced by many patients with neurological disorders. It may be the result of ocular instability occurring after the oculomotor system is affected, no longer holding images steady on the retina. A change in the magnitude of the vestibulo-ocular reflex due to vestibular disease can also lead to oscillopsia during rapid head movements. Oscillopsia may also be caused by involuntary eye movements such as nystagmus, or impaired coordination in the visual cortex (especially due to toxins) and is one of the symptoms of superior canal dehiscence syndrome. Sufferers may experience dizziness and nausea. Oscillopsia can also be used as a quantitative test to document aminoglycoside toxicity. Permanent oscillopsia can arise from an impairment of the ocular system that serves to maintain ocular stability. Paroxysmal oscillopsia can be due to an abnormal hyperactivity in the peripheral ocular or vestibular system.

Parinaud's Syndrome results from injury, either direct or compressive, to the dorsal midbrain. Specifically, compression or ischemic damage of the mesencephalic tectum, including the superior colliculus adjacent oculomotor (origin of cranial nerve III) and Edinger-Westphal nuclei, causing dysfunction to the motor function of the eye.

Classically, it has been associated with three major groups:

1. Young patients with brain tumors in the pineal gland or midbrain: pinealoma (intracranial germinomas) are the most common lesion producing this syndrome.

2. Women in their 20s-30s with multiple sclerosis

3. Older patients following stroke of the upper brainstem

However, any other compression, ischemia or damage to this region can produce these phenomena: obstructive hydrocephalus, midbrain hemorrhage, cerebral arteriovenous malformation, trauma and brainstem toxoplasmosis infection. Neoplasms and giant aneurysms of the posterior fossa have also been associated with the midbrain syndrome.

Vertical supranuclear ophthalmoplegia has also been associated with metabolic disorders, such as Niemann-Pick disease, Wilson's disease, kernicterus, and barbiturate overdose.

A typical method for determining the effects of the sopite syndrome is through the use of one or several questionnaires. The available questionnaires for motion sickness and sopite syndrome are described by Lawson. Two such questionnaires widely used to evaluate motion sickness are the Pensacola Diagnostic Index and the Motion Sickness Questionnaire. These questionnaires are limited, however, in that they group symptoms of drowsiness with other non-sopite related effects, such as nausea and dizziness. Motion sickness is measured based on the cumulative ratings of all these symptoms without distinguishing different levels for each effect.

A Motion Sickness Assessment Questionnaire has been developed to test the multiple dimensions of motion sickness more thoroughly; this survey defines motion sickness as gastrointestinal (involving nausea), peripheral (referring to thermoregulatory effects such as clamminess and sweating), central (involving symptoms such as dizziness and lightheadedness), and sopite-related. This questionnaire may more accurately determine how subjects experience sopite symptoms relative to other motion sickness effects. Another questionnaire designed to measure sleepiness is the Epworth Sleepiness Scale.

Iridoplegia is the paralysis of the sphincter of the iris. It can occur in due to direct orbital injury, which may result in short lived blurred vision.

It can be of three types:

1. accommodative iridoplegia- Noncontraction of pupils during accommodation.

2. complete iridoplegia- Iris fails to respond to any stimulation.

3. reflex iridoplegia- The absence of light reflex, with retention of accommodation reflex. Also called Argyll Robertson pupil.

An optokinetic drum may be used to study visually induced sopite effects. The optokinetic drum is a rotating instrument in which test subjects are seated facing the wall of the drum. The interior surface of the drum is normally striped; thus, as the drum rotates, the subject’s eyes are subject to a moving visual field while the subject remains stationary. The speed of the drum and the duration of the test may be varied. Control groups are placed in a drum without stripes or rotation. After exposure to the rotating drum, subjects are surveyed to determine their susceptibility to motion sickness. A study in which the optokinetic drum was used to test the symptoms of the sopite syndrome showed increased mood changes in response to the visual cues, though these effects were compounded by other environmental factors such as boredom and lack of activity.