The diagnosis of salivary gland tumors utilize both tissue sampling and radiographic studies. Tissue sampling procedures include fine needle aspiration (FNA) and core needle biopsy (bigger needle comparing to FNA). Both of these procedures can be done in an outpatient setting. Diagnostic imaging techniques for salivary gland tumors include ultrasound, computer tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNA), operated in experienced hands, can determine whether the tumor is malignant in nature with sensitivity around 90%. FNA can also distinguish primary salivary tumor from metastatic disease.

Core needle biopsy can also be done in outpatient setting. It is more invasive but is more accurate compared to FNA with diagnostic accuracy greater than 97%. Furthermore, core needle biopsy allows more accurate histological typing of the tumor.

In terms of imaging studies, ultrasound can determine and characterize superficial parotid tumors. Certain types of salivary gland tumors have certain sonographic characteristics on ultrasound. Ultrasound is also frequently used to guide FNA or core needle biopsy.

CT allows direct, bilateral visualization of the salivary gland tumor and provides information about overall dimension and tissue invasion. CT is excellent for demonstrating bony invasion. MRI provides superior soft tissue delineation such as perineural invasion when compared to CT only.

It can be detected by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), but a biopsy is required for the definitive diagnosis. MRI findings typically show a well-circumscribed mass that is dark on T1-weighted images and bright on T2-weighted images. Central necrosis is often present and identifiable by imaging, especially in larger masses.

They are benign lesions and malignant degeneration is rare. They are usually treated with curettage which however have a high recurrence rate of 25%. As such if an en-bloc resection is possible this is advisable

It is important to exclude a tumor which is directly extending into the ear canal from the parotid salivary gland, especially when dealing with an adenoid cystic or mucoepidermoid carcinoma. This can be eliminated by clinical or imaging studies. Otherwise, the histologic differential diagnosis includes a ceruminous adenoma (a benign ceruminous gland tumor) or a neuroendocrine adenoma of the middle ear (middle ear adenoma).

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is diagnosed with a biopsy, when a portion of the tumor is removed for examination. In order to ensure that enough tissue is removed to make an accurate diagnosis, the initial biopsy of a suspected DFSP is usually done with a core needle or a surgical incision.

When diagnosing osteoblastoma, the preliminary radiologic workup should consist of radiography of the site of the patient's pain. However, computed tomography (CT) is often necessary to support clinical and plain radiographic findings suggestive of osteoblastoma and to better define the margins of the lesion for potential surgery. CT scans are best used for the further characterization of the lesion with regard to the presence of a nidus and matrix mineralization. MRI aids in detection of nonspecific reactive marrow and soft tissue edema, and MRI best defines soft tissue extension, although this finding is not typical of osteoblastoma. Bone scintigraphy (bone scan) demonstrates abnormal radiotracer accumulation at the affected site, substantiating clinical suspicion, but this finding is not specific for osteoblastoma. In many patients, biopsy is necessary for confirmation.

Recurrence is common, although the recurrence rates for block resection followed by bone graft are lower than those of enucleation and curettage. Follicular variants appear to recur more than plexiform variants. Unicystic tumors recur less frequently than "non-unicystic" tumors. Persistent follow-up examination is essential for managing ameloblastoma. Follow up should occur at regular intervals for at least 10 years. Follow up is important, because 50% of all recurrences occur within 5 years postoperatively. Recurrence within a bone graft (following resection of the original tumor) does occur, but is less common. Seeding to the bone graft is suspected as a cause of recurrence. The recurrences in these cases seem to stem from the soft tissues, especially the adjacent periosteum. Recurrence has been reported to occur as many as 36 years after treatment.

To reduce the likelihood of recurrence within grafted bone, meticulous surgery with attention to the adjacent soft tissues is required.

Plain film

often seen as a lobulated, eccentric radiolucent lesion

long axis parallel to long axis of long bone

no periosteal reaction (unless a complicating fracture present)

geographic bone destruction: almost 100%

well defined sclerotic margin: 86%

there can be presence of septations (pseudotrabeculation): 57% 2

there can be presence of matrix calcification in a small proportion of cases: 12.5%1

MRI

MR features are often not particularly specific. Signal characteristics include

T1 - low signal

T1 C+ (Gd) -

the majority (~70%) tend to show peripheral nodular enhancement

~ 30% diffuse contrast enhancement and this can be either homogeneous or heterogeneous 19

T2 - high signal

Bone scan

A scintigraphic "doughnut sign" has been described in this tumour type 11. However, this is very non-specific and can be found in a plethora of other bone lesions.

Surgical excision is the preferred method of treatment for benign glomus tumors.

Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice, associated with an excellent long term clinical outcome.

There are many diagnostic methods that can be used to determine the type of salivary gland tumour and if it is benign or malignant. Examples of diagnostic methods include:

Physical exam and history: An exam of the body to check general signs of health. The head, neck, mouth, and throat will be checked for signs of disease, such as lumps or anything else that seems unusual. A history of the patient's health habits and past illnesses and treatments will also be taken.

Endoscopy: A procedure to look at organs and tissues inside the body to check for abnormal areas. For salivary gland cancer, an endoscope is inserted into the mouth to look at the mouth, throat, and larynx. An endoscope is a thin, tube-like instrument with a light and a lens for viewing.

MRI

Biopsy: The removal of cells or tissues so they can be viewed under a microscope by a pathologist to check for signs of cancer.

Fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy: The removal of tissue or fluid using a thin needle. An FNA is the most common type of biopsy used for salivary gland cancer, and has been shown to produce accurate results when differentiating between benign and malignant tumours.

Radiographs: An OPG (orthopantomogram) can be taken to rule out mandibular involvement. A chest radiograph may also be taken to rule out any secondary tumours.

Ultrasound: Ultrasound can be used to initially assess a tumour that is located superficially in either the submandibular or parotid gland. It can distinguish an intrinsic from an extrinsic neoplasm. Ultrasonic images of malignant tumours include ill defined margins.

The only reliable way to determine whether a soft-tissue tumour is benign or malignant is through a biopsy. There are two methods for acquisition of tumour tissue for cytopathological analysis;

- Needle Aspiration, via biopsy needle

- surgically, via an incision made into the tumour.

A pathologist examines the tissue under a microscope. If cancer is present, the pathologist can usually determine the type of cancer and its grade. Here, 'grade' refers to a scale used to represent concisely the predicted growth rate of the tumour and its tendency to spread, and this is determined by the degree to which the cancer cells appear abnormal when examined under a microscope. Low-grade sarcomas, although cancerous, are defined as those that are less likely to metastasise. High-grade sarcomas are defined as those more likely to spread to other parts of the body.

For soft-tissue sarcoma there are two histological grading systems : the National Cancer Institute (NCI) system and the French Federation of Cancer Centers Sarcoma Group (FNCLCC) system.

Soft tissue sarcomas commonly originate in the upper body, in the shoulder or upper chest. Some symptoms are uneven posture, pain in the trapezius muscle and cervical inflexibility [difficulty in turning the head].

The most common site to which soft tissue sarcoma spreads is the lungs.

Chondromyxoid fibromas can share characteristics with chondroblastomas with regards to histologic and radiographic findings. However they more commonly originate from the metaphysis, lack calcification and have a different histologic organization pattern. Other differential diagnoses for chondroblastoma consist of giant cell tumors, bone cysts, eosinophilic granulomas, clear cell chondrosarcomas, and enchondromas (this list is not exhaustive).

From a pathology perspective, several tumors need to be considered in the differential diagnosis, including paraganglioma, ceruminous adenoma, metastatic adenocarcinoma, and meningioma.

Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcomas are, by definition, "undifferentiated", meaning (as the name implies) that they do not bear a resemblance to any normal tissue.

The histomorphology, otherwise, is characterized by high cellularity, marked nuclear pleomorphism, usually accompanied by abundant mitotic activity (including atypical mitoses), and a spindle cell morphology. Necrosis is common and characteristic of high grade lesions.

Some tests which detect cancer could be called "screening for epithelial dysplasia". The principle behind these tests is that physicians expect dysplasia to occur at the same rate in a typical individual as it would in many other people. Because of this, researchers design screening recommendations which assume that if a physician can find no dysplasia at certain time, then doing testing before waiting until new dysplasia could potentially develop would be a waste of medical resources for the patient and the healthcare provider because the chances of detecting anything is extremely low.

Some examples of this in practice are that if a patient whose endoscopy did not detect dysplasia on biopsy during screening for Barrett's esophagus, then research shows that there is little chance of any test detecting dysplasia for that patient within three years.

Individuals at average-risk for colorectal cancer should have another screening after ten years if they get a normal result and after five years if they have only one or two adenomatous polyps removed.

Chondroid differentiation is a common feature of chondroblastoma. A typical histological appearance consists of a combination of oval mononuclear and multi-nucleated osteoclast-type giant cells. However this is not a prerequisite for diagnosis, as cells with epithelioid characteristics have been observed in lesions of the skull and facial bones. A "chicken-wire" appearance is characteristic of chondroblastoma cells and is the result of dystrophic calcification that may surround individual cells. Although, calcification may not be present and is not a prerequisite for diagnosis. Mitotic figures can be observed in chondroblastoma tissue but are not considered atypical in nature, and therefore, should not be viewed as a sign of a more serious pathology. There is no correlation between mitotic activity and location of the lesion. Furthermore, the presence of atypical cells is rare and is not associated with malignant chondroblastoma. There are no discernible histological differences observed when comparing the aggressive form of chondroblastoma that can cause recurrence or metastases with its less aggressive, benign, counterpart.

ASPS is an extremely rare cancer. While sarcomas comprise about 1% of all newly diagnosed cancers, and 15% of all childhood cancers, ASPS comprises less than 1% of sarcomas. According to the American Cancer Society, about 9530 new cases of soft tissue sarcoma will be diagnosed in the USA in 2006. This predicts under 100 new cases of ASPS. Such low numbers of occurrence seriously impede the search for a cure by making it hard to gather any meaningful statistics about the disease. As a result, finding the best treatment option often involves making a lot of educated guesses.

The diagnosis of synovial sarcoma is typically made based on histology and is confirmed by the presence of t(X;18) chromosomal translocation.

It is important to separate hiberoma from adult rhabdomyoma, a granular cell tumor and a true liposarcoma.

Wide, radical, complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice, with free surgical margins to achieve the best outcome and lowest chance of recurrence. Radiation is only used for palliation. In general, there is a good prognosis, although approximately 50% of patients die from disease within 3–10 years of presentation.

Two cell types can be seen microscopically in synovial sarcoma. One fibrous type, known as a spindle or sarcomatous cell, is relatively small and uniform, and found in sheets. The other is epithelial in appearance. Classical synovial sarcoma has a biphasic appearance with both types present. Synovial sarcoma can also appear to be poorly differentiated or to be monophasic fibrous, consisting only of sheets of spindle cells. Some authorities state that, extremely rarely, there can be a monophasic epithelial form which causes difficulty in differential diagnosis. Depending on the site, there is similarity to biphenotypic sinonasal sarcoma, although the genetic findings are distinctive.

Like other soft tissue sarcomas, there is no universal grading system for reporting histopathology results. In Europe, the Trojani or French system is gaining in popularity while the NCI grading system is more common in the United States. The Trojani system scores the sample, depending on tumour differentiation, mitotic index, and tumour necrosis, between 0 and 6 and then converts this into a grade of between 1 and 3, with 1 representing a less aggressive tumour. The NCI system is also a three-grade one, but takes a number of other factors into account.

While chemotherapy, radiation therapy, curettage and liquid nitrogen have been effective in some cases of ameloblastoma, surgical resection or enucleation remains the most definitive treatment for this condition. In a detailed study of 345 patients, chemotherapy and radiation therapy seemed to be contraindicated for the treatment of ameloblastomas. Thus, surgery is the most common treatment of this tumor. Because of the invasive nature of the growth, excision of normal tissue near the tumor margin is often required. Some have likened the disease to basal cell carcinoma (a skin cancer) in its tendency to spread to adjacent bony and sometimes soft tissues without metastasizing. While rarely not a cancer that actually invades adjacent tissues, ameloblastoma is suspected to spread to adjacent areas of the jaw bone via marrow space. Thus, wide surgical margins that are clear of disease are required for a good prognosis. This is very much like surgical treatment of cancer. Often, treatment requires excision of entire portions of the jaw.

Radiation is ineffective in many cases of ameloblastoma. There have also been reports of sarcoma being induced as the result of using radiation to treat ameloblastoma. Chemotherapy is also often ineffective. However, there is some controversy regarding this and some indication that some ameloblastomas might be more responsive to radiation that previously thought.

The first route of treatment in Osteoblastoma is via medical means. Although necessary, radiation therapy (or chemotherapy) is controversial in the treatment of osteoblastoma. Cases of postirradiation sarcoma have been reported after use of these modalities. However, it is possible that the original histologic diagnosis was incorrect and the initial lesion was an osteosarcoma, since histologic differentiation of these two entities can be very difficult.

The alternative means of treatment consists of surgical therapy. The treatment goal is complete surgical excision of the lesion. The type of excision depends on the location of the tumor.

- For stage 1 and 2 lesions, the recommended treatment is extensive intralesional excision, using a high-speed burr. Extensive intralesional resections ideally consist of removal of gross and microscopic tumor and a margin of normal tissue.

- For stage 3 lesions, wide resection is recommended because of the need to remove all tumor-bearing tissue. Wide excision is defined here as the excision of tumor and a circumferential cuff of normal tissue around the entity. This type of complete excision is usually curative for osteoblastoma.

In most patients, radiographic findings are not diagnostic of osteoblastoma; therefore, further imaging is warranted. CT examination performed with the intravenous administration of contrast agent poses a risk of an allergic reaction to contrast material.

The lengthy duration of an MRI examination and a history of claustrophobia in some patients are limiting the use of MRI. Although osteoblastoma demonstrates increased radiotracer accumulation, its appearance is nonspecific, and differentiating these lesions from those due to other causes involving increased radiotracer accumulation in the bone is difficult. Therefore, bone scans are useful only in conjunction with other radiologic studies and are not best used alone.

Regardless of location, all rhabdoid tumours are highly aggressive, have a poor prognosis, and tend to occur in children less than two years of age.