To determine whether a client presents with puberphonia, a complete voice assessment including medical and diagnostic evaluations is recommended. These assessments are performed by otorhinolaryngologists and speech-language pathologists.

A behavioural assessment for puberphonia will consist of several types of tasks, and may include:

- Examining for tension in the neck and throat: The clinician will visually examine the area around the larynx to see if the voice box sits high in the throat, and palpate the area to determine whether there is excessive muscular tension.

- Determining the relationship between tension and vocal pitch: The clinician will ask the client to perform warm-up and relaxation exercises such as those listed in the Treatment section below to determine whether the client has access to their modal voice register.

- Establishing vocal range: The clinician will ask the client to produce the lowest and highest pitch that they can, and perform different speaking or singing activities at various pitches.

- Listening for abnormal traits: The clinician will listen for the presence of breathy voice, an indication of speech in the falsetto register, and other distortions of vocal quality.

- Taking aerodynamic measurements: Many individuals with puberphonia may have limited breath support caused by the thoracic or shallow breathing patterns often used to support speech in the falsetto register. These symptoms are assessed using vocal tasks such as maximum phonation time and direct measures of breath support such as glottal airflow and subglottal pressure.

Diagnosis of megalencephaly has changed over the years, however, with the development of more advanced equipment, physicians have been able to confirm the disorder with better accuracy. Usually, a physical exam is first performed when characteristics of megalencephaly have appeared. This typically occurs at birth or during early child development. A physician will then take head measurements in order to determine the circumference. This is known as the head circumference. Then a family background will be recorded in order to determine if there has been a history of megalencephaly in the family.

A neurological exam will then be performed using the technology of an MRI machine in order to confirm the diagnosis of megalencephaly. These imaging tests give detailed information regarding brain size, volume asymmetry and other irregular developments linked with MCAP, MPPH and hemimegalencephaly.

There is also a strong correlation of epilepsy and megalencephaly and this can aid doctors in their diagnosis.

If a diagnosis of megalencephaly is confirmed, the child is referred to a specialist who focuses on managing the symptoms and improving lifestyle. Since megalencephaly is usually presented with autism, the goal of treatment is to improve deficiencies associated with autistic causes. Additionally, since each patient has unique symptoms, there is no one specific treatment method and therefore is heavily reliant on symptoms associated with an individual.

In diagnosing autosomal dominant cerebellar ataxia the individuals clinical history or their past health examinations, a current physical examination to check for any physical abnormalities, and a genetic screening of the patients genes and the genealogy of the family are done. The large category of cerebellar ataxia is caused by a deterioration of neurons in the cerebellum, therefore magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used to detect any structural abnormality such as lesions which are the primary cause of the ataxia. Computed tomography (CT) scans can also be used to view neuronal deterioration, but the MRI provides a more accurate and detailed picture.

Since there are very few treatment methods focused on managing megalencephaly, future research is targeted at inhibiting mutation of the pathway. However, this next step could be met with several complications as understanding the underlying mechanism of the mutation is a difficult task. The genetic coding that initiates a single mutation is sporadic and patterns are hard to detect in many cases.

Even thought very little research has been done to create inhibitors of the PI3K-AKT pathway, several pharmaceutical companies have begun to focus their interests in designing a prevention method for this purpose.

Differential diagnosis includes Angelman syndrome, Mowat–Wilson syndrome and Rett syndrome.

Diagnosis is made by showing a mutation in the TCF4 gene.

Around 50% of those affected show abnormalities on brain imaging. These include hypoplastic corpus callosum with a missing rostrum and posterior part of the splenium with bulbous caudate nuclei bulging towards the frontal horns.

Electroencephalograms show an excess of slow components.

All have low levels of immunoglobulin M (IgM) but features of an immunodeficiency are absent.

In terms of a cure there is currently none available, however for the disease to manifest itself, it requires mutant gene expression. Manipulating the use of protein homoestasis regulators can be therapuetic agents, or a treatment to try and correct an altered function that makes up the pathology is one current idea put forth by Bushart, et al. There is some evidence that for SCA1 and two other polyQ disorders that the pathology can be reversed after the disease is underway. There is no effective treatments that could alter the progression of this disease, therefore care is given, like occupational and physical therapy for gait dysfunction and speech therapy.

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are diagnostic of NF2.

NF II can be diagnosed with 65% accuracy prenatally with chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis.

Ferner et al. give three sets of diagnostic criteria for NF2:

1. Bilateral vestibular schwannoma (VS) or family history of NF2 plus Unilateral VS or any two of: meningioma, glioma, neurofibroma, schwannoma, posterior subcapsular lenticular opacities

2. Unilateral VS plus any two of meningioma, glioma, neurofibroma, schwannoma, posterior subcapsular lenticular opacities

3. Two or more meningioma plus unilateral VS or any two of glioma, schwannoma and cataract.

Another set of diagnostic criteria is the following:

- Detection of bilateral acoustic neuroma by imaging-procedures

- First degree relative with NF II and the occurrence of neurofibroma, meningiomas, glioma, or Schwannoma

- First degree relative with NF II and the occurrence of juvenile posterior subcapsular cataract.

The criteria have varied over time.

McLeod syndrome is one of only a few disorders in which acanthocytes may be found on the peripheral blood smear. Blood evaluation may show signs of hemolytic anemia. Elevated creatine kinase can be seen with myopathy in McLeod syndrome.

MRI shows increased T2 signal in the lateral putamen with caudate atrophy and secondary lateral ventricular dilation. Necropsy shows loss of neurons and gliosis in the caudate and globus pallidus. Similar changes may also be seen in the thalamus, substantia nigra, and putamen. The cerebellum and cerebral cortex are generally spared.

Since the syndrome is caused by a genetic mutation in the individual's DNA, a cure is not available. Treatment of the symptoms and management of the syndrome, however, is possible.

Depending on the manifestation, surgery, increased intake of glucose, special education, occupational therapy, speech therapy, and physical therapy are some methods of managing the syndrome and associated symptoms.

SGBS is similar to another overgrowth syndrome called Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome.

SGBS Cells are a unique tool to study the function of Human adipocyte biology. These cells are similar to human primary preadipocytes, and may or may not become a popular model instead of Mouse 3T3-L1 cells to study the secretion and adipokine profile in the future. This cellular tool has been described and developed by Dr. Martin Wabitsch, University of Ulm, Germany.

In 2009, Monash Children's Hospital at Southern Health in Melbourne, Australia reported that a patient known as Baby Z became the first person to be successfully treated for molybdenum cofactor deficiency type A. The patient was treated with cPMP, a precursor of the molybdenum cofactor. Baby Z will require daily injections of cyclic pyranopterin monophosphate (cPMP) for the rest of her life.

Diagnosis of Molybdenum cofactor deficiency includes early seizures, low blood levels of uric acid, and high levels of sulphite, xanthine, and uric acid in urine. Additionally, the disease produces characteristic MRI images that can aid in diagnosis.

The high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest scan is better than the chest radiograph to detect cystic parenchymal disease and is almost always abnormal at the time of diagnosis, even when the chest radiograph and pulmonary function assessments are normal. The typical CT shows diffuse round, bilateral, thin-walled cysts of varying sizes ranging from 1 to 45 mm in diameter. The numbers of cysts varies in LAM from a few to almost complete replacement of normal lung tissue. The profusion of cysts tends to be milder in patients with TSC-LAM than S-LAM, perhaps explained in part because TSC-LAM patients typically receive earlier screening. Pleural effusions are seen on CT in 12% of patients with S-LAM and 6% of patients with TSC-LAM. Other CT features include linear densities (29%), hilar or mediastinal lymphadenopathy (9%), pneumothorax, lymphangiomyoma, and thoracic duct dilation. Ground-glass opacities (12%) suggest the presence of interstitial edema due to lymphatic congestion. In patients with TSC, nodular densities on HRCT may represent multifocal micronodular pneumocyte hyperplasia (MMPH) made up of clusters of hyperplastic type II pneumocytes. MMPH may be present in males or females with TSC in the presence or absence of LAM, but not in patients with S-LAM. MMPH is not typically associated with physiologic or prognostic consequences, but one case of respiratory failure due to MMPH has been reported.

The chest radiograph may appear relatively normal, even late in the disease, or may suggest hyperinflation only. As the disease progresses, the chest radiograph often demonstrates diffuse, bilateral and symmetric reticulonodular opacities, cysts, bullae or a "honeycomb" (i.e., pseudo fibrotic) appearance. Pleural effusion and pneumothorax may be apparent. Preservation of lung volumes in the presence of increased interstitial markings is a radiographic hallmark of LAM that helps distinguish it from most other interstitial lung diseases, in which alveolar septal and interstitial expansion tend to increase the lung’s elastic recoil properties and decreased lung volumes.

Studies have found heightened HPV in mouth cell samples from people with squamous cell carcinoma of the mouth. Studies have not found significant HPV in mouth cells after sampling with toothbrushes (5 of 2,619 samples) and cytobrushes (no oral transmission found).

According to the National Cancer Institute, “The most common test detects DNA from several high-risk HPV types, but it cannot identify the type(s) that are present. Another test is specific for DNA from HPV types 16 and 18, the two types that cause most HPV-associated cancers. A third test can detect DNA from several high-risk HPV types and can indicate whether HPV-16 or HPV-18 is present. A fourth test detects RNA from the most common high-risk HPV types. These tests can detect HPV infections before cell abnormalities are evident.

“Theoretically, the HPV DNA and RNA tests could be used to identify HPV infections in cells taken from any part of the body. However, the tests are approved by the FDA for only two indications: for follow-up testing of women who seem to have abnormal Pap test results and for cervical cancer screening in combination with a Pap test among women over age 30.”

In April 2011, the Food and Drug Administration approved the cobas HPV Test, manufactured by Roche. This cervical cancer screening test “specifically identifies types HPV 16 and HPV 18 while concurrently detecting the rest of the high risk types (31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 66 and 68).”

The cobas HPV Test was evaluated in the ATHENA trial, which studied more than 47,000 U.S. women 21 years old and older undergoing routine cervical cancer screening. Results from the ATHENA trial demonstrated that 1 in 10 women, age 30 and older, who tested positive for HPV 16 and/or 18, actually had cervical pre-cancer even though they showed normal results with the Pap test.

In March 2003, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved the Hybrid Capture 2 test manufactured by Qiagen/Digene, which is a "hybrid-capture" test as an adjunct to Pap testing. The test may be performed during a routine Pap smear. It detects the DNA of 13 "high-risk" HPV types that most commonly affect the cervix, it does not determine the specific HPV types. Hybrid Capture 2 is the most widely studied commercially available HPV assay and the majority of the evidence for HPV primary testing in population-based screening programs is based on the Hybrid Capture 2 assay.

The recent outcomes in the identification of molecular pathways involved in cervical cancer provide helpful information about novel bio- or oncogenic markers that allow monitoring of these essential molecular events in cytological smears, histological, or cytological specimens. These bio- or onco- markers are likely to improve the detection of lesions that have a high risk of progression in both primary screening and triage settings. E6 and E7 mRNA detection PreTect HPV-Proofer (HPV OncoTect) or p16 cell-cycle protein levels are examples of these new molecular markers. According to published results, these markers, which are highly sensitive and specific, allow to identify cells going through malignant transformation.

In October 2011 the US Food and Drug Administration approved the Aptima HPV Assay test for RNA created when and if any HPV strains start creating cancers (see virology).

The vulva/vagina has been sampled with Dacron swabs and shows more HPV than the cervix. Among women who were HPV positive in either place, 90% were positive in the vulvovaginal region, 46% in the cervix.

Ocular albinism type 1 (OA1), also called Nettleship–Falls syndrome, is the most common type of ocular albinism, with a prevalence rate of 1:50,000. It is an inheritable classical Mendelian type X-linked recessive disorder wherein the retinal pigment epithelium lacks pigment while hair and skin appear normal. Since it is usually an X-linked disorder, it occurs mostly in males, while females are carriers unless they are homozygous. About 60 missense and nonsense mutations, insertions, and deletions have been identified in "Oa1". Mutations in OA1 have been linked to defective glycosylation and thus improper intracellular transportation.

The eponyms of the name "Nettleship–Falls syndrome" are the ophthalmologists Edward Nettleship and Harold Francis Falls.

When vWD is suspected, blood plasma of a patient must be investigated for quantitative and qualitative deficiencies of vWF. This is achieved by measuring the amount of vWF in a vWF antigen assay and the functionality of vWF with a glycoprotein (GP)Ib binding assay, a collagen binding assay, or a ristocetin cofactor activity (RiCof) or ristocetin induced platelet agglutination (RIPA) assays. Factor VIII levels are also performed because factor VIII is bound to vWF which protects the factor VIII from rapid breakdown within the blood. Deficiency of vWF can then lead to a reduction in factor VIII levels, which explains the elevation in PTT. Normal levels do not exclude all forms of vWD, particularly type 2, which may only be revealed by investigating platelet interaction with subendothelium under flow, a highly specialized coagulation study not routinely performed in most medical laboratories. A platelet aggregation assay will show an abnormal response to ristocetin with normal responses to the other agonists used. A platelet function assay may give an abnormal collagen/epinephrine closure time, and in most cases, a normal collagen/ADP time. Type 2N may be considered if factor VIII levels are disproportionately low, but confirmation requires a "factor VIII binding" assay. Additional laboratory tests that help classify sub-types of vWD include von-willebrand multimer analysis, modified ristocetin induced platelet aggregation assay and vWF propeptide to vWF antigen ratio propeptide. In cases of suspected acquired von-Willebrand syndrome, a mixing study study (analysis of patient plasma along with pooled normal plasma/PNP and a mixture of the two tested immediately, at one hour, and at two hours) should be performed. Detection of vWD is complicated by vWF being an acute phase reactant with levels rising in infection, pregnancy, and stress.

Other tests performed in any patient with bleeding problems are a complete blood count-CBC (especially platelet counts), activated partial thromboplastin time-APTT, prothrombin time with International Normalized Ratio-PTINR, thrombin time-TT, and fibrinogen level. Testing for factor IX may also be performed if hemophilia B is suspected. Other coagulation factor assays may be performed depending on the results of a coagulation screen. Patients with von Willebrand disease typically display a normal prothrombin time and a variable prolongation of partial thromboplastin time.

The testing for vWD can be influenced by laboratory procedures. Numerous variables exist in the testing procedure that may affect the validity of the test results and may result in a missed or erroneous diagnosis. The chance of procedural errors are typically greatest during the preanalytical phase (during collecting storage and transportation of the specimen) especially when the testing is contracted to an outside facility and the specimen is frozen and transported long distances. Diagnostic errors are not uncommon, and the rate of testing proficiency varies amongst laboratories, with error rates ranging from 7 to 22% in some studies to as high as 60% in cases of misclassification of vWD subtype. To increase the probability of a proper diagnosis, testing should be done at a facility with immediate on-site processing in a specialized coagulation laboratory.

Liver biopsy for microscopic analysis and enzyme assay is required for definitive diagnosis. Diagnosis may include linkage analysis in families with affected members and sequencing of the entire coding region of the GSY2 gene for mutations.

To date there is no treatment for ocular albinism, probably because little is known about the receptor function and its role in the pathophysiology of the condition. Though surgery for strabismus is sometimes helpful, there does not seem to be a sure remedy for it until the cause of ocular albinism is well established. However, with the recent discovery of the upstream ligand (L-DOPA) and the discovery of Oa1's possible downstream G alpha partner (Gai3) the Oa1 pathway is becoming clearer and future of Oa1 research looks promising.

Touloukian "et al." have characterized OA1 immunologically as a melanoma/melanocyte differentiation antigen. Flow cytometry data suggests that OA1-specific T cells are all CD8+. This indicates that OA1 peptide is processed and presented on the surface of melanoma cells to be recognized by antigen-specific T cells. Moreover, recognition of OA1 by T cells induces cytokine production by the OA1-specific T cells. This means that OA1 is a potential target for melanoma vaccines.

In the United States screening is typically recommended between the age of 50 and 75 years. For those between 76 and 85 years of age the decision to screen should be individualized. A number of screening methods can be used including stool based tests every 3 years, sigmoidoscopy every 5 years and colonoscopy every 10 years. For those at high risk, screenings usually begin at around 40. It is unclear which of these two methods is better. Colonoscopy may find more cancers in the first part of the colon but is associated with greater cost and more complications. For people with average risk who have had a high-quality colonoscopy with normal results, the American Gastroenterological Association does not recommend any type of screening in the 10 years following the colonoscopy. For people over 75 or those with a life expectancy of less than 10 years, screening is not recommended. It takes about 10 years after screening for one out of a 1000 people to benefit.

In Canada, among those 50 to 75 at normal risk, fecal immunochemical testing or FOBT is recommended every two years or sigmoidoscopy every 10 years. Colonoscopy is less preferred.

Some countries have national colorectal screening programs which offer FOBT screening for all adults within a certain age group, typically starting between age 50 and 60. Examples of countries with organised screening include the United Kingdom, Australia and the Netherlands.