The diagnosis of salivary gland tumors utilize both tissue sampling and radiographic studies. Tissue sampling procedures include fine needle aspiration (FNA) and core needle biopsy (bigger needle comparing to FNA). Both of these procedures can be done in an outpatient setting. Diagnostic imaging techniques for salivary gland tumors include ultrasound, computer tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNA), operated in experienced hands, can determine whether the tumor is malignant in nature with sensitivity around 90%. FNA can also distinguish primary salivary tumor from metastatic disease.

Core needle biopsy can also be done in outpatient setting. It is more invasive but is more accurate compared to FNA with diagnostic accuracy greater than 97%. Furthermore, core needle biopsy allows more accurate histological typing of the tumor.

In terms of imaging studies, ultrasound can determine and characterize superficial parotid tumors. Certain types of salivary gland tumors have certain sonographic characteristics on ultrasound. Ultrasound is also frequently used to guide FNA or core needle biopsy.

CT allows direct, bilateral visualization of the salivary gland tumor and provides information about overall dimension and tissue invasion. CT is excellent for demonstrating bony invasion. MRI provides superior soft tissue delineation such as perineural invasion when compared to CT only.

There are many diagnostic methods that can be used to determine the type of salivary gland tumour and if it is benign or malignant. Examples of diagnostic methods include:

Physical exam and history: An exam of the body to check general signs of health. The head, neck, mouth, and throat will be checked for signs of disease, such as lumps or anything else that seems unusual. A history of the patient's health habits and past illnesses and treatments will also be taken.

Endoscopy: A procedure to look at organs and tissues inside the body to check for abnormal areas. For salivary gland cancer, an endoscope is inserted into the mouth to look at the mouth, throat, and larynx. An endoscope is a thin, tube-like instrument with a light and a lens for viewing.

MRI

Biopsy: The removal of cells or tissues so they can be viewed under a microscope by a pathologist to check for signs of cancer.

Fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy: The removal of tissue or fluid using a thin needle. An FNA is the most common type of biopsy used for salivary gland cancer, and has been shown to produce accurate results when differentiating between benign and malignant tumours.

Radiographs: An OPG (orthopantomogram) can be taken to rule out mandibular involvement. A chest radiograph may also be taken to rule out any secondary tumours.

Ultrasound: Ultrasound can be used to initially assess a tumour that is located superficially in either the submandibular or parotid gland. It can distinguish an intrinsic from an extrinsic neoplasm. Ultrasonic images of malignant tumours include ill defined margins.

As metanephric adenomas are considered benign, they can be left in place, i.e. no treatment is needed.

Craniopharyngiomas are usually successfully managed with a combination of adjuvant chemotherapy and neurosurgery. Recent research describes the rare occurrence of malignant transformations of these normally benign tumors. Malignant craniopharyngiomas can occur at any age, are slightly more common in females, and are usually of the adamantinomatous type.

The malignant transformations can take years to occur (although 1 in 5 of the diagnosed cases were de novo transformations), hence the need for lengthier follow up in patients diagnosed with the more common benign forms.

There was no link found between malignancy and initial chemo-radiotherapy treatment, and the overall survival rate was very poor with median survival being 6 months post diagnosis of malignancy.

It is important to exclude a tumor which is directly extending into the ear canal from the parotid salivary gland, especially when dealing with an adenoid cystic or mucoepidermoid carcinoma. This can be eliminated by clinical or imaging studies. Otherwise, the histologic differential diagnosis includes a ceruminous adenoma (a benign ceruminous gland tumor) or a neuroendocrine adenoma of the middle ear (middle ear adenoma).

Serous cystic neoplasms can come to clinical attention in a variety of ways. The most common symptoms are very non-specific and include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. In contrast to many of the other tumors of the pancreas, patients rarely develop jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and eyes caused by obstruction of the bile duct), or weight loss. These signs and symptoms are not specific for a serous cystic neoplasm, making it more difficult to establish a diagnosis. Doctors will therefore often order additional tests.

Once a doctor has reason to believe that a patient may have serous cystic neoplasm, he or she can confirm that suspicion using one of a number of imaging techniques. These include computerized tomography (CT), endoscopic ultrasound (EUS), and magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). These tests will reveal a cystic mass within the pancreas. The cysts do not communicate with the larger pancreatic ducts. In some cases a fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. Fine needle aspiration biopsy can be performed through an endoscope at the time of endoscopic ultrasound, or it can be performed through the skin using a needle guided by ultrasound or CT scanning.

A growing number of patients are now being diagnosed before they develop symptoms (asymptomatic patients). In these cases, the lesion in the pancreas is discovered accidentally (by chance) when the patient is being scanned (x-rayed) for another reason.

Overall, the mainstay of the treatment for salivary gland tumor is surgical resection. Needle biopsy is highly recommended prior to surgery to confirm the diagnosis. More detailed surgical technique and the support for additional adjuvant radiotherapy depends on whether the tumor is malignant or benign.

Surgical treatment of parotid gland tumors is sometimes difficult, partly because of the anatomical relationship of the facial nerve and the parotid lodge, but also through the increased potential for postoperative relapse. Thus, detection of early stages of a tumor of the parotid gland is extremely important in terms of prognosis after surgery.

Generally, benign tumors of the parotid gland are treated with superficial(Patey's operation) or total parotidectomy with the latter being the more commonly practiced due to high incidence of recurrence. The facial nerve should be preserved whenever possible. The benign tumors of the submandibular gland is treated by simple excision with preservation of mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, and the lingual nerve. Other benign tumors of minor salivary glands are treated similarly.

Malignant salivary tumors usually require wide local resection of the primary tumor. However, if complete resection cannot be achieved, adjuvant radiotherapy should be added to improve local control. This surgical treatment has many sequellae such as cranial nerve damage, Frey's syndrome, cosmetic problems, etc.

Usually about 44% of the patients have a complete histologic removal of the tumor and this refers to the most significant survival rate.

Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms can come to clinical attention in a variety of different ways. The most common symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. The most common signs patients have when they come to medical attention include jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and eyes caused by obstruction of the bile duct), weight loss, and acute pancreatitis. These signs and symptoms are not specific for an intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm, making it more difficult to establish a diagnosis. Doctors will therefore often order additional tests.

Once a doctor has reason to believe that a patient may have an intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm, he or she can confirm that suspicion using one of a number of imaging techniques. These include computerized tomography (CT), endoscopic ultrasound (EUS), and magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). These tests will reveal dilatation of the pancreatic duct or one of the branches of the pancreatic duct. In some cases a fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. Fine needle aspiration biopsy can be performed through an endoscope at the time of endoscopic ultrasound, or it can be performed through the skin using a needle guided by ultrasound or CT scanning.

IPMN forms cysts (small cavities or spaces) in the pancreas. These cysts are visible in CT scans (X-ray computed tomography). However, many pancreatic cysts are benign (see Pancreatic disease).

A growing number of patients are now being diagnosed before they develop symptoms (asymptomatic patients). In these cases, the lesion in the pancreas is discovered accidentally (by chance) when the patient is being scanned (i.e. undergoing an ultrasound, CT or MRI scan) for another reason. Up to 6% of patients undergoing pancreatic resection did so for treatment of incidental IPMNs.

In 2011, scientists at Johns Hopkins reported that they have developed a gene-based test that can be used to distinguish harmless from precancerous pancreatic cysts. The test may eventually help patients with harmless cysts avoid needless surgery. Bert Vogelstein and his colleagues discovered that almost all of the precancerous cysts (intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms) of the pancreas have mutations in the KRAS and/or the GNAS gene. The researchers then tested a total of 132 intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms for mutations in KRAS and GNAS. Nearly all (127) had mutations in GNAS, KRAS or both. Next, the investigators tested harmless cysts such as serous cystadenomas, and the harmless cysts did not have GNAS or KRAS mutations. Larger numbers of patients must be studied before the gene-based test can be widely offered.

They are benign lesions and malignant degeneration is rare. They are usually treated with curettage which however have a high recurrence rate of 25%. As such if an en-bloc resection is possible this is advisable

There are a few scans and tests that the physician can conduct in order to diagnose a person with craniopharyngioma. Your doctor may order a high-resolution magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. This test is valuable because it allows the neuroradiologist to view the tumor from different angles.

In some cases, a powerful 3T (Tesla) MRI scanner can help define the location of critical brain structures affected by the tumor.The histologic pattern consists of nesting of squamous epithelium bordered by radially arranged cells. It is frequently accompanied by calcium deposition and may have a microscopic papillary architecture.A computed tomography (CT) scan is also a good diagnostic tool as it detects calcification in the tumor.

Two distinct types are recognized:

- Adamantinomatous craniopharyngiomas, which resemble ameloblastomas (the most common type of odontogenic tumor), are characterized by activating CTNNB1 mutations; and,

- Papillary craniopharyngiomas are characterized by BRAFv600E mutations.

In the adamantinomatous type, calcifications are visible on neuroimaging and are helpful in diagnosis.

The papillary type rarely calcifies. A vast majority of craniopharyngiomas in children are adamantiomatous whereas both subtypes are common in adults. Mixed type tumors also occur.

On macroscopic examination, craniopharyngiomas are cystic or partially cystic with solid areas. On light microscopy, the cysts are seen to be lined by stratified squamous epithelium. Keratin pearls may also be seen. The cysts are usually filled with a yellow, viscous fluid which is rich in cholesterol crystals. Of a long list of possible symptoms, the most common presentations include: headaches, growth failure, and bitemporal hemianopsia.

Radiologically

- Odontogenic Myxoma

- Ameloblastoma

- Central Giant Cell Granuloma

- Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

Histologically

- Orthokeratocyst

- Radicular cyst (particularly if the OKC is very inflamed)

- Unicystic ameloblastoma

Usually—depending on the interview of the patient and after a clinical exam which includes a neurological exam, and an ophthalmological exam—a CT scan and or MRI scan will be performed. A special dye may be injected into a vein before these scans to provide contrast and make tumors easier to identify. The neoplasm will be clearly visible.

If a tumor is found, it will be necessary for a neurosurgeon to perform a biopsy of it. This simply involves the removal of a small amount of tumorous tissue, which is then sent to a (neuro)pathologist for examination and staging. The biopsy may take place before surgical removal of the tumor or the sample may be taken during surgery.

The definitive diagnosis is by histologic analysis, i.e. and examination under the microscope.

Under the microscope, OKCs vaguely resemble keratinized squamous epithelium; however, they lack rete ridges and often have an artifactual separation from their basement membrane.

On a CT scan, The radiodensity of a keratocystic odontogenic tumour is about 30 Hounsfield units, which is about the same as ameloblastomas. Yet, ameloblastomas show more bone expansion and seldom show high density areas.

Management of MEN2 patients includes thyroidectomy including cervical central and bilateral lymph nodes dissection for MTC, unilateral adrenalectomy for unilateral pheochromocytoma or bilateral adrenalectomy when both glands are involved and selective resection of pathologic parathyroid glands for primary hyperparathyroidism.

Familial genetic screening is recommended to identify at risk subjects who will develop the disease, permitting early management by performing prophylactic thyroidectomy, giving them the best chance of cure.

Prognosis of MEN2 is mainly related to the stage-dependant prognosis of MTC indicating the necessity of a complete thyroid surgery for index cases with MTC and the early thyroidectomy for screened at risk subjects.

Metanephric adenoma is diagnosed histologically. The tumours can be located at upper pole, lower pole and mid-hilar region of the kidney; they are well circumscribed but unencapsulated, tan pink, with possible cystic and hemorrhagic foci. They show a uniform architecture of closely packed acinar or tubular structures of mature and bland appearance with scanty interposed stroma. Cells are small with dark staining nuclei and inconspicuous nucleoli. Blastema is absent whereas calcospherites may be present. Glomeruloid figures are a striking finding, reminiscent of early fetal metenephric tissue. The lumen of the acini may contain otherwise epithelial infoldings or fibrillary material but it is quite often empty. Mitoses are conspicuously absent.

In the series reported by Jones "et al." tumour cells were reactive for Leu7 in 3 cases of 5, to vimentine in 4 of 6, to cytocheratin in 2 of 6, to epithelial membrane antigen in 1 of 6 cases and muscle specific antigen in 1 of 6.

Olgac "et al." found that intense and diffuse immunoreactivity for alpha-methylacyl-CoA racemase (AMACR) is useful in differentiating renal cell carcinoma from MA but a panel including AMACR, CK7 and CD57 is better in this differential diagnosis.

Differential diagnosis may be quite difficult indeed as exemplified by the three malignancies initially diagnosed as MA that later metastasized, in the report by Pins et al.

The treatment is simple excision and exclusion of a malignant neoplasm.

Before gene testing was available, the type and location of tumors determined which type of MEN2 a person had. Gene testing now allows a diagnosis before tumors or symptoms develop.

A table in the multiple endocrine neoplasia article compares the various MEN syndromes. MEN2 and MEN1 are distinct conditions, despite their similar names. MEN2 includes MEN2A, MEN2B and familial medullary thyroid cancer (FMTC).

The common feature among the three sub-types of MEN2 is a high propensity to develop medullary thyroid carcinoma.

The main treatment modalities are surgery, embolization and radiotherapy.

Plain film

often seen as a lobulated, eccentric radiolucent lesion

long axis parallel to long axis of long bone

no periosteal reaction (unless a complicating fracture present)

geographic bone destruction: almost 100%

well defined sclerotic margin: 86%

there can be presence of septations (pseudotrabeculation): 57% 2

there can be presence of matrix calcification in a small proportion of cases: 12.5%1

MRI

MR features are often not particularly specific. Signal characteristics include

T1 - low signal

T1 C+ (Gd) -

the majority (~70%) tend to show peripheral nodular enhancement

~ 30% diffuse contrast enhancement and this can be either homogeneous or heterogeneous 19

T2 - high signal

Bone scan

A scintigraphic "doughnut sign" has been described in this tumour type 11. However, this is very non-specific and can be found in a plethora of other bone lesions.

Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice, associated with an excellent long term clinical outcome.

Chondromyxoid fibromas can share characteristics with chondroblastomas with regards to histologic and radiographic findings. However they more commonly originate from the metaphysis, lack calcification and have a different histologic organization pattern. Other differential diagnoses for chondroblastoma consist of giant cell tumors, bone cysts, eosinophilic granulomas, clear cell chondrosarcomas, and enchondromas (this list is not exhaustive).

Diagnosis of EIN lesions is of clinical importance because of the increased risk of coexisting (39% of women with EIN will be diagnosed with carcinoma within one year) or future (the long term endometrial cancer risk is 45 times greater for a woman with EIN compared to one with only a benign endometrial histology) endometrial cancer. Diagnostic terminology is that used by pathologists, physicians who diagnose human disease by examination of histologic preparations of excised tissues. Critical distinctions in EIN diagnosis are separation from benign conditions such as benign endometrial hyperplasia (a field effect in endometrial tissue caused by excessive stimulation by the hormone estrogen), and cancer.

The spectrum of disease which must be distinguished from EIN (Table II) includes benign endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma:

Table II: Disease classes that need to be distinguished from EIN.

EIN may be diagnosed by a trained pathologist by examination of tissue sections of the endometrium. All of the following diagnostic criteria must be met in a single area of one tissue fragment to make the diagnosis (Table III).

Table III: EIN diagnosis.

Microscopically, an astrocytoma is a mass that looks well-circumscribed and has a large cyst. The neoplasm may also be solid.

Under the microscope, the tumor is seen to be composed of bipolar cells with long "hairlike" GFAP-positive processes, giving the designation "pilocytic" (that is, made up of cells that look like fibers when viewed under a microscope). Some pilocytic astrocytomas may be more fibrillary and dense in composition. There is often presence of Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic granular bodies and microcysts. Myxoid foci and oligodendroglioma-like cells may also be present, though non-specific. Long-standing lesions may show hemosiderin-laden macrophages and calcifications.

These lesions rarely require surgery unless they are symptomatic or the diagnosis is in question. Since these lesions do not have malignant potential, long-term observation is unnecessary. Surgery can include the removal of the head of the pancreas (a pancreaticoduodenectomy), removal of the body and tail of the pancreas (a distal pancreatectomy), or rarely removal of the entire pancreas (a total pancreatectomy). In selected cases the surgery can be performed using minimally invasive techniques such as laparoscopy.

Wide, radical, complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice, with free surgical margins to achieve the best outcome and lowest chance of recurrence. Radiation is only used for palliation. In general, there is a good prognosis, although approximately 50% of patients die from disease within 3–10 years of presentation.