For surface epithelial-stromal tumors, the most common sites of metastasis are the pleural cavity (33%), the liver (26%), and the lungs (3%).

A retrospective study of 83 women with sex cord–stromal tumours (73 with granulosa cell tumour and 10 with Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour), all diagnosed between 1975 and 2003, reported that survival was higher with age under 50, smaller tumour size, and absence of residual disease. The study found no effect of chemotherapy. A retrospective study of 67 children and adolescents reported some benefit of cisplatin-based chemotherapy.

A prospective study of ovarian sex cord–stromal tumours in children and adolescents began enrolling participants in 2005.

Fertility subsequent to treatment of surface epithelial-stromal tumors depends mainly on histology and initial

staging to separate it into early borderline (or more benign) versus advanced stages of borderline (or more malignant). Conservative management (without bilateral oophorectomy) of early stage borderline tumors have been estimated to result in chance of over 50% of spontaneous pregnancy with a low risk of lethal recurrence of the tumor (0.5%). On the other hand, in cases of conservative treatment in advanced stage borderline tumors, spontaneous pregnancy rates have been estimated to be 35% and the risk of lethal recurrence 2%.

10-year survival rates for mucinous tumors is excellent in the absence of invasion.

In the case of borderline tumors confined to the ovary and malignant tumors without invasion, the survival rates are 90% or greater. In invasive mucinous cystadenocarcinomas, the survival is approximately 30%

Diagnosis of EIN lesions is of clinical importance because of the increased risk of coexisting (39% of women with EIN will be diagnosed with carcinoma within one year) or future (the long term endometrial cancer risk is 45 times greater for a woman with EIN compared to one with only a benign endometrial histology) endometrial cancer. Diagnostic terminology is that used by pathologists, physicians who diagnose human disease by examination of histologic preparations of excised tissues. Critical distinctions in EIN diagnosis are separation from benign conditions such as benign endometrial hyperplasia (a field effect in endometrial tissue caused by excessive stimulation by the hormone estrogen), and cancer.

The spectrum of disease which must be distinguished from EIN (Table II) includes benign endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma:

Table II: Disease classes that need to be distinguished from EIN.

EIN may be diagnosed by a trained pathologist by examination of tissue sections of the endometrium. All of the following diagnostic criteria must be met in a single area of one tissue fragment to make the diagnosis (Table III).

Table III: EIN diagnosis.

While cancer is generally considered a disease of old age, children can also develop cancer. In contrast to adults, carcinomas are exceptionally rare in children..

The two biggest risk factors for ovarian carcinoma are age and family history.

Cystic nephromas are diagnosed by biopsy or excision. It is important to correctly diagnose them as, radiologically, they may mimic the appearance of a renal cell carcinoma that is cystic.

The diagnosis of salivary gland tumors utilize both tissue sampling and radiographic studies. Tissue sampling procedures include fine needle aspiration (FNA) and core needle biopsy (bigger needle comparing to FNA). Both of these procedures can be done in an outpatient setting. Diagnostic imaging techniques for salivary gland tumors include ultrasound, computer tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNA), operated in experienced hands, can determine whether the tumor is malignant in nature with sensitivity around 90%. FNA can also distinguish primary salivary tumor from metastatic disease.

Core needle biopsy can also be done in outpatient setting. It is more invasive but is more accurate compared to FNA with diagnostic accuracy greater than 97%. Furthermore, core needle biopsy allows more accurate histological typing of the tumor.

In terms of imaging studies, ultrasound can determine and characterize superficial parotid tumors. Certain types of salivary gland tumors have certain sonographic characteristics on ultrasound. Ultrasound is also frequently used to guide FNA or core needle biopsy.

CT allows direct, bilateral visualization of the salivary gland tumor and provides information about overall dimension and tissue invasion. CT is excellent for demonstrating bony invasion. MRI provides superior soft tissue delineation such as perineural invasion when compared to CT only.

Immunohistochemistry is performed as additional test. The strong positive expression of cytokeratin 19 was showed in primary SCTC, and negative in metastatic SCTC.

The 1997 International Germ Cell Consensus Classification is a tool for estimating the risk of relapse after treatment of malignant germ cell tumor.

A small study of ovarian tumors in girls reports a correlation between cystic and benign tumors and, conversely, solid and malignant tumors. Because the cystic extent of a tumor can be estimated by ultrasound, MRI, or CT scan before surgery, this permits selection of the most appropriate surgical plan to minimize risk of spillage of a malignant tumor.

Access to appropriate treatment has a large effect on outcome. A 1993 study of outcomes in Scotland found that for 454 men with non-seminomatous (non-germinomatous) germ cell tumors diagnosed between 1975 and 1989, 5-year survival increased over time and with earlier diagnosis. Adjusting for these and other factors, survival was 60% higher for men treated in a cancer unit that treated the majority of these men, even though the unit treated more men with the worst prognosis.

Choriocarcinoma of the testicles has the worst prognosis of all germ cell cancers

There are no specific radiological tests for SCTC verification. However these tests might be useful for identification of tumor borders and in planning of surgery.

There is no simple and reliable way to test for ovarian cancer in women who do not have any signs or symptoms. The Pap test does not screen for ovarian cancer.

Screening is not recommended in women who are at average risk, as evidence does not support a reduction in death and the high rate of false positive tests may lead to unneeded surgery, which is accompanied by its own risks.

Ovarian cancer is usually only palpable in advanced stages. Screening is not recommended using CA-125 measurements, HE4 levels, ultrasound, or adnexal palpation in women who are at average risk. Risk of developing ovarian cancer in those with genetic factors can be reduced. Those with a genetic predisposition may benefit from screening. This high risk group has benefited with earlier detection.

Ovarian cancer has low prevalence, even in the high-risk group of women from the ages of 50 to 60 (about one in 2000), and screening of women with average risk is more likely to give ambiguous results than detect a problem which requires treatment. Because ambiguous results are more likely than detection of a treatable problem, and because the usual response to ambiguous results is invasive interventions, in women of average risk, the potential harms of having screening without an indication outweigh the potential benefits. The purpose of screening is to diagnose ovarian cancer at an early stage, when it is more likely to be treated successfully.

Screening with transvaginal ultrasound, pelvic examination, and CA-125 levels can be used instead of preventative surgery in women who have BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations. This strategy has shown some success.

As metanephric adenomas are considered benign, they can be left in place, i.e. no treatment is needed.

Blood tests may detect the presence of placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP) in fifty percent of cases. However, PLAP cannot usefully stand alone as a marker for seminoma and contributes little to follow-up, due to its rise with smoking. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) may be elevated in some cases, but this correlates more to the presence of trophoblast cells within the tumour than to the stage of the tumour. A classical or pure seminoma by definition do not cause an elevated serum alpha fetoprotein . Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) may be the only marker that is elevated in some seminomas. The degree of elevation in the serum LDH has prognostic value in advanced seminoma.

The cut surface of the tumour is fleshy and lobulated, and varies in colour from cream to tan to pink. The tumour tends to bulge from the cut surface, and small areas of hemorrhage may be seen. These areas of hemorrhage usually correspond to trophoblastic cell clusters within the tumour.

Microscopic examination shows that seminomas are usually composed of either a sheet-like or lobular pattern of cells with a fibrous stromal network. The fibrous septa almost always contain focal lymphocyte inclusions, and granulomas are sometimes seen. The tumour cells themselves typically have abundant clear to pale pink cytoplasm containing abundant glycogen, which is demonstrable with a periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain. The nuclei are prominent and usually contain one or two large nucleoli, and have prominent nuclear membranes. Foci of syncytiotrophoblastic cells may be present in varied amounts. The adjacent testicular tissue commonly shows intratubular germ cell neoplasia, and may also show variable spermatocytic maturation arrest.

POU2AF1 and PROM1 have been proposed as possible markers.

Grading of carcinomas refers to the employment of criteria intended to semi-quantify the degree of cellular and tissue maturity seen in the transformed cells relative to the appearance of the normal parent epithelial tissue from which the carcinoma derives.

Grading of carcinoma is most often done after a treating physician and/or surgeon obtains a sample of suspected tumor tissue using surgical resection, needle or surgical biopsy, direct washing or brushing of tumor tissue, sputum cytopathology, etc. A pathologist then examines the tumor and its stroma, perhaps utilizing staining, immunohistochemistry, flow cytometry, or other methods. Finally, the pathologist classifies the tumor semi-quantitatively into one of three or four grades, including:

- Grade 1, or well differentiated: there is a close, or very close, resemblance to the normal parent tissue, and the tumor cells are easily identified and classified as a particular malignant histological entity;

- Grade 2, or moderately differentiated: there is considerable resemblance to the parent cells and tissues, but abnormalities can commonly be seen and the more complex features are not particularly well-formed;

- Grade 3, or poorly differentiated: there is very little resemblance between the malignant tissue and the normal parent tissue, abnormalities are evident, and the more complex architectural features are usually rudimentary or primitive;

- Grade 4, or undifferentiated carcinoma: these carcinomas bear no significant resemblance to the corresponding parent cells and tissues, with no visible formation of glands, ducts, bridges, stratified layers, keratin pearls, or other notable characteristics consistent with a more highly differentiated neoplasm.

Although there is definite and convincing statistical correlation between carcinoma grade and tumor prognosis for some tumor types and sites of origin, the strength of this association can be highly variable. It may be stated generally, however, that the higher the grade of the lesion, the worse is its prognosis.

The presenting features may be a palpable testicular mass or asymmetric testicular enlargement in some cases. The tumour may present as signs and symptoms relating to the presence of widespread metastases, without any palpable lump in the testis. The clinical features associated with metastasising embryonal carcinoma may include low back pain, dyspnoea, cough, haemoptysis, haematemesis and neurologic abnormalities.

Males with embryonal carcinoma tend to have a normal range serum AFP. The finding of elevated AFP is more suggestive of a mixed germ cell tumour, with the AFP being released by a yolk sac tumour component.

Intratesticular masses that appear suspicious on an ultrasound should be treated with an inguinal orchiectomy. The pathology of the removed testicle and spermatic cord indicate the presence of the seminoma and assist in the staging. Tumors with both seminoma and nonseminoma elements or that occur with the presence of AFP should be treated as nonseminomas. Abdominal CT or MRI scans as well as chest imaging are done to detect for metastasis. The analysis of tumor markers also helps in staging.

The preferred treatment for most forms of stage 1 seminoma is active surveillance. Stage 1 seminoma is characterized by the absence of clinical evidence of metastasis. Active surveillance consists of periodic history and physical examinations, tumor marker analysis, and radiographic imaging. Around 85-95% of these cases will require no further treatment. Modern radiotherapy techniques as well as one or two cycles of single-agent carboplatin have been shown to reduce the risk of relapse, but carry the potential of causing delayed side effects. Regardless of treatment strategy, stage 1 seminoma has nearly a 100% cure rate.

Stage 2 seminoma is indicated by the presence of retroperitoneal metastasis. Cases require radiotherapy or, in advanced cases, combination chemotherapy. Large residual masses found after chemotherapy may require surgical resection. Second-line treatment is the same as for nonseminomas.

Stage 3 seminoma is characterized by the presence of metastasis outside the retroperitoneum—the lungs in "good risk" cases or elsewhere in "intermediate risk" cases. This is treated with combination chemotherapy. Second-line treatment follows nonseminoma protocols.

Serous cystic neoplasms can come to clinical attention in a variety of ways. The most common symptoms are very non-specific and include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. In contrast to many of the other tumors of the pancreas, patients rarely develop jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and eyes caused by obstruction of the bile duct), or weight loss. These signs and symptoms are not specific for a serous cystic neoplasm, making it more difficult to establish a diagnosis. Doctors will therefore often order additional tests.

Once a doctor has reason to believe that a patient may have serous cystic neoplasm, he or she can confirm that suspicion using one of a number of imaging techniques. These include computerized tomography (CT), endoscopic ultrasound (EUS), and magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). These tests will reveal a cystic mass within the pancreas. The cysts do not communicate with the larger pancreatic ducts. In some cases a fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. Fine needle aspiration biopsy can be performed through an endoscope at the time of endoscopic ultrasound, or it can be performed through the skin using a needle guided by ultrasound or CT scanning.

A growing number of patients are now being diagnosed before they develop symptoms (asymptomatic patients). In these cases, the lesion in the pancreas is discovered accidentally (by chance) when the patient is being scanned (x-rayed) for another reason.

Women with benign germ cell tumors such as mature teratomas (dermoid cysts) are cured by ovarian cystectomy or oophorectomy. In general, all patients with malignant germ cell tumors will have the same staging surgery that is done for epithelial ovarian cancer. If the patient is in her reproductive years, an alternative is unilateral salpingoophorectomy, while the uterus, the ovary, and the fallopian tube on the opposite side can be left behind. This isn't an option when the cancer is in both ovaries. If the patient has finished having children, the surgery involves complete staging including salpingoophorectomy on both sides as well as hysterectomy.

Most patients with germ cell cancer will need to be treated with combination chemotherapy for at least 3 cycles. The chemotherapy regimen most commonly used in germ cell tumors is called PEB (or BEP), and consists of bleomycin, etoposide, a platinum-based antineoplastic (cisplatin).

Some tests which detect cancer could be called "screening for epithelial dysplasia". The principle behind these tests is that physicians expect dysplasia to occur at the same rate in a typical individual as it would in many other people. Because of this, researchers design screening recommendations which assume that if a physician can find no dysplasia at certain time, then doing testing before waiting until new dysplasia could potentially develop would be a waste of medical resources for the patient and the healthcare provider because the chances of detecting anything is extremely low.

Some examples of this in practice are that if a patient whose endoscopy did not detect dysplasia on biopsy during screening for Barrett's esophagus, then research shows that there is little chance of any test detecting dysplasia for that patient within three years.

Individuals at average-risk for colorectal cancer should have another screening after ten years if they get a normal result and after five years if they have only one or two adenomatous polyps removed.

The clinical and pathology differential are different. From a pathology perspective, an endolymphatic sac tumor needs to be separated from metastatic renal cell carcinoma, metastatic thyroid papillary carcinoma, middle ear adenoma, paraganglioma, choroid plexus papilloma, middle ear adenocarcinoma, and ceruminous adenoma.

MCACL has a much more favorable prognosis than most other forms of adenocarcinoma and most other NSCLC's. Cases have been documented of continued growth of these lesions over a period of 10 years without symptoms or metastasis. The overall mortality rate appears to be somewhere in the vicinity of 18% to 27%, depending on the criteria that are used to define this entity.

There are many diagnostic methods that can be used to determine the type of salivary gland tumour and if it is benign or malignant. Examples of diagnostic methods include:

Physical exam and history: An exam of the body to check general signs of health. The head, neck, mouth, and throat will be checked for signs of disease, such as lumps or anything else that seems unusual. A history of the patient's health habits and past illnesses and treatments will also be taken.

Endoscopy: A procedure to look at organs and tissues inside the body to check for abnormal areas. For salivary gland cancer, an endoscope is inserted into the mouth to look at the mouth, throat, and larynx. An endoscope is a thin, tube-like instrument with a light and a lens for viewing.

MRI

Biopsy: The removal of cells or tissues so they can be viewed under a microscope by a pathologist to check for signs of cancer.

Fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy: The removal of tissue or fluid using a thin needle. An FNA is the most common type of biopsy used for salivary gland cancer, and has been shown to produce accurate results when differentiating between benign and malignant tumours.

Radiographs: An OPG (orthopantomogram) can be taken to rule out mandibular involvement. A chest radiograph may also be taken to rule out any secondary tumours.

Ultrasound: Ultrasound can be used to initially assess a tumour that is located superficially in either the submandibular or parotid gland. It can distinguish an intrinsic from an extrinsic neoplasm. Ultrasonic images of malignant tumours include ill defined margins.

The prognosis of EMECL is relatively good, and considerably better than most other forms of NSCLC. The skull and dura are possible sites for metastasis from pulmonary EMC. The MIB-1 index is a predictive marker of malignant potential.