It is important to exclude a tumor which is directly extending into the ear canal from the parotid salivary gland, especially when dealing with an adenoid cystic or mucoepidermoid carcinoma. This can be eliminated by clinical or imaging studies. Otherwise, the histologic differential diagnosis includes a ceruminous adenoma (a benign ceruminous gland tumor) or a neuroendocrine adenoma of the middle ear (middle ear adenoma).

There are many diagnostic methods that can be used to determine the type of salivary gland tumour and if it is benign or malignant. Examples of diagnostic methods include:

Physical exam and history: An exam of the body to check general signs of health. The head, neck, mouth, and throat will be checked for signs of disease, such as lumps or anything else that seems unusual. A history of the patient's health habits and past illnesses and treatments will also be taken.

Endoscopy: A procedure to look at organs and tissues inside the body to check for abnormal areas. For salivary gland cancer, an endoscope is inserted into the mouth to look at the mouth, throat, and larynx. An endoscope is a thin, tube-like instrument with a light and a lens for viewing.

MRI

Biopsy: The removal of cells or tissues so they can be viewed under a microscope by a pathologist to check for signs of cancer.

Fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy: The removal of tissue or fluid using a thin needle. An FNA is the most common type of biopsy used for salivary gland cancer, and has been shown to produce accurate results when differentiating between benign and malignant tumours.

Radiographs: An OPG (orthopantomogram) can be taken to rule out mandibular involvement. A chest radiograph may also be taken to rule out any secondary tumours.

Ultrasound: Ultrasound can be used to initially assess a tumour that is located superficially in either the submandibular or parotid gland. It can distinguish an intrinsic from an extrinsic neoplasm. Ultrasonic images of malignant tumours include ill defined margins.

Immunohistochemistry is performed as additional test. The strong positive expression of cytokeratin 19 was showed in primary SCTC, and negative in metastatic SCTC.

There are no specific radiological tests for SCTC verification. However these tests might be useful for identification of tumor borders and in planning of surgery.

The diagnosis of salivary gland tumors utilize both tissue sampling and radiographic studies. Tissue sampling procedures include fine needle aspiration (FNA) and core needle biopsy (bigger needle comparing to FNA). Both of these procedures can be done in an outpatient setting. Diagnostic imaging techniques for salivary gland tumors include ultrasound, computer tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNA), operated in experienced hands, can determine whether the tumor is malignant in nature with sensitivity around 90%. FNA can also distinguish primary salivary tumor from metastatic disease.

Core needle biopsy can also be done in outpatient setting. It is more invasive but is more accurate compared to FNA with diagnostic accuracy greater than 97%. Furthermore, core needle biopsy allows more accurate histological typing of the tumor.

In terms of imaging studies, ultrasound can determine and characterize superficial parotid tumors. Certain types of salivary gland tumors have certain sonographic characteristics on ultrasound. Ultrasound is also frequently used to guide FNA or core needle biopsy.

CT allows direct, bilateral visualization of the salivary gland tumor and provides information about overall dimension and tissue invasion. CT is excellent for demonstrating bony invasion. MRI provides superior soft tissue delineation such as perineural invasion when compared to CT only.

Wide, radical, complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice, with free surgical margins to achieve the best outcome and lowest chance of recurrence. Radiation is only used for palliation. In general, there is a good prognosis, although approximately 50% of patients die from disease within 3–10 years of presentation.

Serous cystic neoplasms can come to clinical attention in a variety of ways. The most common symptoms are very non-specific and include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. In contrast to many of the other tumors of the pancreas, patients rarely develop jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and eyes caused by obstruction of the bile duct), or weight loss. These signs and symptoms are not specific for a serous cystic neoplasm, making it more difficult to establish a diagnosis. Doctors will therefore often order additional tests.

Once a doctor has reason to believe that a patient may have serous cystic neoplasm, he or she can confirm that suspicion using one of a number of imaging techniques. These include computerized tomography (CT), endoscopic ultrasound (EUS), and magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). These tests will reveal a cystic mass within the pancreas. The cysts do not communicate with the larger pancreatic ducts. In some cases a fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. Fine needle aspiration biopsy can be performed through an endoscope at the time of endoscopic ultrasound, or it can be performed through the skin using a needle guided by ultrasound or CT scanning.

A growing number of patients are now being diagnosed before they develop symptoms (asymptomatic patients). In these cases, the lesion in the pancreas is discovered accidentally (by chance) when the patient is being scanned (x-rayed) for another reason.

They are benign lesions and malignant degeneration is rare. They are usually treated with curettage which however have a high recurrence rate of 25%. As such if an en-bloc resection is possible this is advisable

While cancer is generally considered a disease of old age, children can also develop cancer. In contrast to adults, carcinomas are exceptionally rare in children..

The two biggest risk factors for ovarian carcinoma are age and family history.

PUNLMPs are exophytic lesions that appear friable to the naked eye and when imaged during cystoscopy.

They are definitively diagnosed after removal by microscopic examination by pathologists.

Histologically, they have a papillary architecture with slender fibrovascular cores and rare basal mitoses. The papillae rarely fuse and uncommonly branch. Cytologically, they have uniform nuclear enlargement.

They cannot be reliably differentiated from low grade papillary urothelial carcinomas using cytology, and their diagnosis (vis-a-vis low grade papillary urothelial carcinoma) has a poor inter-rater reliability.

Pathologic grading and staging tumors are:

graded by the degree of cellular atypia (G1->G3), and

staged:

Carcinomas can be definitively diagnosed through biopsy, including fine-needle aspiration (FNA), core biopsy, or subtotal removal of single node. Microscopic examination by a pathologist is then necessary to identify molecular, cellular, or tissue architectural characteristics of epithelial cells.

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is diagnosed with a biopsy, when a portion of the tumor is removed for examination. In order to ensure that enough tissue is removed to make an accurate diagnosis, the initial biopsy of a suspected DFSP is usually done with a core needle or a surgical incision.

Imaging studies such as Computerized Tomography (CT) and Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) can aid diagnosis. Medulloepithelioma appears isodense or hypodense with variable heterogeneity and calcification on non-contrast CT scan, and enhances with contrast. This radiographical finding is consistent with a primitive neuroectodermal tumour, especially in children. Blood studies and imaging studies of the abdomen may be used to detect metastases.

Needle aspiration biopsy can be used to aid diagnosis. Definitive diagnosis requires histopathological examination of surgically excised tumour tissues.

Histologically, medulloepithelioma resemble a primitive neural tube and with neuronal, glial and mesenchymal elements. Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes may also be observed.

Immunohistochemically, neural tube-like structures are vimentin positive in the majority of medulloepitheliomas. Poorly differentiated medulloepitheliomas are vimentin negative.

Surgical excision is the preferred method of treatment for benign glomus tumors.

Radiologically

- Odontogenic Myxoma

- Ameloblastoma

- Central Giant Cell Granuloma

- Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

Histologically

- Orthokeratocyst

- Radicular cyst (particularly if the OKC is very inflamed)

- Unicystic ameloblastoma

The definitive diagnosis is by histologic analysis, i.e. and examination under the microscope.

Under the microscope, OKCs vaguely resemble keratinized squamous epithelium; however, they lack rete ridges and often have an artifactual separation from their basement membrane.

On a CT scan, The radiodensity of a keratocystic odontogenic tumour is about 30 Hounsfield units, which is about the same as ameloblastomas. Yet, ameloblastomas show more bone expansion and seldom show high density areas.

PUNLMPs are treated like non-invasive low grade papillary urothelial carcinomas, excision and regular follow-up cystoscopies.

There is a rare occurrence of a pelvic recurrence of a low-grade superficial TCC after cystectomy. Delayed presentation with recurrent low-grade urothelial carcinoma is an unusual entity and potential mechanism of traumatic implantation should be considered. Characteristically low-grade tumors are resistant to systemic chemotherapy and curative-intent surgical resection of the tumor should be considered.

Treatment may include the following:

- Surgery with or without radiation

- Radiotherapy

Fast neutron therapy has been used successfully to treat salivary gland tumors, and has shown to be significantly more effective than photons in studies treating unresectable salivary gland tumors.

- Chemotherapy

Craniopharyngiomas are usually successfully managed with a combination of adjuvant chemotherapy and neurosurgery. Recent research describes the rare occurrence of malignant transformations of these normally benign tumors. Malignant craniopharyngiomas can occur at any age, are slightly more common in females, and are usually of the adamantinomatous type.

The malignant transformations can take years to occur (although 1 in 5 of the diagnosed cases were de novo transformations), hence the need for lengthier follow up in patients diagnosed with the more common benign forms.

There was no link found between malignancy and initial chemo-radiotherapy treatment, and the overall survival rate was very poor with median survival being 6 months post diagnosis of malignancy.

Plain film

often seen as a lobulated, eccentric radiolucent lesion

long axis parallel to long axis of long bone

no periosteal reaction (unless a complicating fracture present)

geographic bone destruction: almost 100%

well defined sclerotic margin: 86%

there can be presence of septations (pseudotrabeculation): 57% 2

there can be presence of matrix calcification in a small proportion of cases: 12.5%1

MRI

MR features are often not particularly specific. Signal characteristics include

T1 - low signal

T1 C+ (Gd) -

the majority (~70%) tend to show peripheral nodular enhancement

~ 30% diffuse contrast enhancement and this can be either homogeneous or heterogeneous 19

T2 - high signal

Bone scan

A scintigraphic "doughnut sign" has been described in this tumour type 11. However, this is very non-specific and can be found in a plethora of other bone lesions.

Regardless of location, all rhabdoid tumours are highly aggressive, have a poor prognosis, and tend to occur in children less than two years of age.

Some tests which detect cancer could be called "screening for epithelial dysplasia". The principle behind these tests is that physicians expect dysplasia to occur at the same rate in a typical individual as it would in many other people. Because of this, researchers design screening recommendations which assume that if a physician can find no dysplasia at certain time, then doing testing before waiting until new dysplasia could potentially develop would be a waste of medical resources for the patient and the healthcare provider because the chances of detecting anything is extremely low.

Some examples of this in practice are that if a patient whose endoscopy did not detect dysplasia on biopsy during screening for Barrett's esophagus, then research shows that there is little chance of any test detecting dysplasia for that patient within three years.

Individuals at average-risk for colorectal cancer should have another screening after ten years if they get a normal result and after five years if they have only one or two adenomatous polyps removed.

Diet and lifestyle are believed to play a large role in whether colorectal polyps form. Studies show there to be a protective link between consumption of cooked green vegetables, brown rice, legumes, and dried fruit and decreased incidence of colorectal polyps.

Appearance and location of the tumor is enough to identify it as a mammary tumor. Biopsy will give type and invasiveness of the tumor. In addition, newer studies showed that certain gene expression patterns are associated with malignant behaviour of canine mammary tumors.

Surgical removal is the treatment of choice, but chest x-rays should be taken first to rule out metastasis. Removal should be with wide margins to prevent recurrence, taking the whole mammary gland if necessary. Because 40 to 50 percent of dog mammary tumors have estrogen receptors, spaying is recommended by many veterinarians. A recent study showed a better prognosis in dogs that are spayed at the time of surgery or that had been recently spayed. However, several other studies found no improvement of disease outcome when spaying was performed after the tumor had developed. Chemotherapy is rarely used.

The prognosis of EMECL is relatively good, and considerably better than most other forms of NSCLC. The skull and dura are possible sites for metastasis from pulmonary EMC. The MIB-1 index is a predictive marker of malignant potential.