Diagnosis is made on the appearance; the virus cannot routinely be cultured. The diagnosis can be confirmed by excisional biopsy.

Histologically, molluscum contagiosum is characterized by molluscum bodies in the epidermis, above the stratum basale, which consist of large cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (accumulated virions) and a small peripheral nucleus.

Most cases of molluscum contagiosum will clear up naturally within two years (usually within nine months). So long as the skin growths are present, there is a possibility of transmitting the infection to another person. When the growths are gone, the possibility of spreading the infection is ended.

Unlike herpesviruses, which can remain inactive in the body for months or years before reappearing, molluscum contagiosum does not remain in the body when the growths are gone from the skin and will not reappear on their own.

This is equivalent of zero intervention. It has been associated with almost 100% mortality rate of one or all fetuses. Exceptions to this include patients that are still in Stage 1 TTTS and are past 22 weeks gestation.

A staging system proposed by fetal surgeon Dr. Ruben Quintero is commonly used to classify the severity of TTTS.

Stage I: A small amount of amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios) is found around the donor twin and a large amount of amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios) is found around the recipient twin.

Stage II: In addition to the description above, the ultrasound is not able to identify the bladder in the donor twin.

Stage III: In addition to the characteristics of Stages I and II, there is abnormal blood flow in the umbilical cords of the twins.

Stage IV: In addition to all of the above findings, the recipient twin has swelling under the skin and appears to be experiencing heart failure (fetal hydrops).

Stage V: In addition to all of the above findings, one of the twins has died. This can happen to either twin. The risk to either the donor or the recipient is roughly equal & is quite high in Stage II or higher TTTS.

The Quintero staging does not provide information about prognosis, and other staging systems have been proposed.

Biochemical blood tests determine the amount of typical markers of renal function in the blood serum, for instance serum urea and serum creatinine. Biochemistry can also be used to determine serum electrolytes. Special biochemical tests (arterial blood gas) can determine the amount of dissolved gases in the blood, indicating if pH imbalances are acute or chronic.

Urinalysis is a test that studies urine for abnormal substances such as protein or signs of infection.

- A Full Ward Test, also known as dipstick urinalysis, involves the dipping of a biochemically active test strip into the urine specimen to determine levels of tell-tale chemicals in the urine.

- Urinalysis can also involve MC&S microscopy, culture and sensitivity

Urodynamic tests evaluate the storage of urine in the bladder and the flow of urine from the bladder through the urethra. It may be performed in cases of incontinence or neurological problems affecting the urinary tract.

Ultrasound is commonly performed to investigate problems of the kidney and/or urinary tract.

Radiology:

- KUB is plain radiography of the urinary system, e.g. to identify kidney stones.

- An intravenous pyelogram studies the shape of the urinary system.

- CAT scans and MRI can also be useful in localising urinary tract pathology.

- A voiding cystogram is a functional study where contrast "dye" is injected through a catheter into the bladder. Under x-ray the radiologist asks the patient to void (usually young children) and will watch the contrast exiting the body on the x-ray monitor. This examines the child's bladder and lower urinary tract. Typically looking for vesicoureteral reflux, involving urine backflow up into the kidneys.

Osteochondromas are often asymptomatic and may not cause any kind of discomfort. They are often found accidentally when an X-ray is done for an unrelated reason.

- X-rays are the first tests performed that characterize a lesion. They show a clear picture of dense structures of bones, and will also indicate bone growth pertaining to osteochondroma.

- Computed Tomography (CT) scan can identify the bony lesion in great details and show the presence of calcification. These tests also provide great details, especially in soft tissues with the aide of cross-sectional images.

- Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is the most accurate method for detecting bone masses in symptomatic cases to depict precise morphology of a tumor. It is used to verify if the palpable mass is continuous with the cortex of the affected bone and to differentiate an osteochondroma from other lesions on the surface of the bone. MRI can also be used to look for cartilage on the surface of tumor and can depict any vascular complications caused by the tumor. An MRI can identify tumors of the spinal column and is often used to diagnose low grade osteosarcoma.

- Ultrasound is done if aneurysms or pseudoaneurysms and venous or arterial thrombosis is suspected. Ultrasound is an accurate method for examining the cartilaginous cap of the osteochondroma. It is also a way of pinpointing bursitis. However, it cannot be used to predict if the growth of tumor is inward in regards to the cap.

- Angiography is used to detect vascular lesions caused by osteochondroma due to ossified cartilaginous cap. It is also used to characterize malignant transformation lesions through neovascularity.

- Clinical testing such as sequence analysis can be done of the entire coding regions of both "EXT1" and "EXT2" to detect mutations.

- A biopsy of the tissue sample of the tumor can also be taken to check for cancer.

Tests for osteochondroma can also identify diseases such as secondary peripheral chondrosarcoma and Multiple osteochondromatosis. In large, secondary chondrosarcoma arises at the site of osteochondroma due to increased thickness of the cartilage cap indicating potential malignant transformation. The symptoms of multiple osteochondromatosis are similar to solitary osteochondroma, but they are often more severe. Painless bumps can arise at the site of tumor and pain and other discomforts can also take place if pressure is put on the soft tissues, nerves, or blood vessels. Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (DEH) or Trevor's disease and metachondromatosis (MC) are considered differential diagnosis of both solitary and hereditary osteochondromas. DEH is described as a type of over growth at one or more epiphyses. Similar to osteochondroma, DEH is diagnosed prior to 15 years of age and the growth of lesions end at puberty, when the growth plates close. Metachondromatosis is a rare disorder that exhibit symptoms of both multiple osteochondromas and enchondromas in children and is also inherited in autosomal dominant mode.

On conventional radiographs, the most common osseous presentation is a permeative lytic lesion with periosteal reaction. The classic description of lamellated or "onion-skin" type periosteal reaction is often associated with this lesion. Plain films add valuable information in the initial evaluation or screening. The wide zone of transition (e.g. permeative) is the most useful plain film characteristic in differentiation of benign versus aggressive or malignant lytic lesions.

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) should be routinely used in the work-up of malignant tumors. It will show the full bony and soft tissue extent and relate the tumor to other nearby anatomic structures (e.g. vessels). Gadolinium contrast is not necessary as it does not give additional information over noncontrast studies, though some current researchers argue that dynamic, contrast-enhanced MRI may help determine the amount of necrosis within the tumor, thus help in determining response to treatment prior to surgery.

Computed axial tomography(CT) can also be used to define the extraosseous extent of the tumor, especially in the skull, spine, ribs, and pelvis. Both CT and MRI can be used to follow response to radiation and/or chemotherapy. Bone scintigraphy can also be used to follow tumor response to therapy.

In the group of malignant small round cell tumors which include Ewing's sarcoma, bone lymphoma, and small cell osteosarcoma, the cortex may appear almost normal radiographically, while permeative growth occurs throughout the Haversian channels. These tumours may be accompanied by a large soft-tissue mass while almost no bone destruction is visible. The radiographs frequently do not shown any signs of cortical destruction.

Radiographically, Ewing's sarcoma presents as "moth-eaten" destructive radiolucencies of the medulla and erosion of the cortex with expansion.

Other entities with similar clinical presentations include osteomyelitis, osteosarcoma (especially telangiectatic osteosarcoma), and eosinophilic granuloma. Soft-tissue neoplasms such as pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma (malignant fibrous histiocytoma) that erode into adjacent bone may also have a similar appearance.

The usual initial investigations include chest X ray, electrocardiogram and echocardiography. Typical findings are those of an enlarged heart with non specific conduction defects. Biochemical investigations include serum creatine kinase (typically increased 10 fold) with lesser elevations of the serum aldolase, aspartate transaminase, alanine transaminase and lactic dehydrogenase. Diagnosis is made by estimating the acid alpha glucosidase activity in either skin biopsy (fibroblasts), muscle biopsy (muscle cells) or in white blood cells. The choice of sample depends on the facilities available at the diagnostic laboratory.

In the late onset form, the findings on investigation are similar to those of the infantile form with the caveat that the creatinine kinases may be normal in some cases. The diagnosis is by estimation of the enzyme activity in a suitable sample.

On May 17, 2013 the Secretary's Discretionary Advisory Committee on Heritable Diseases in Newborns and Children (DACHDNC) approved a recommendation to the Secretary of Health and Human Services to add Pompe to the Recommended Uniform Screening Panel (RUSP). The HHS secretary must first approve the recommendation before the disease is formally added to the panel.

Osteochondromas are benign lesions and do not affect life expectancy. Complete excision of osteochondroma is curative and the reoccurrences take place when the removal of tumor is incomplete. Multiple reoccurrences in a well-excised lesion indicate that it may be malignant. The risk of malignant transformation takes place in 1–5% of individuals. If any symptoms of cancerous tumor takes place, then the patient should be evaluated by a bone specialist. No treatment is necessary for Solitary osteochondromas that are asymptomatic. Treatments for solitary osteochondroma are careful observation over time and taking regular x-rays to monitor any changes in the tumor. If the lesion is causing pain with activity, nerve or vessel impingement, or if the bone growth has fully matured and the presence of a large cartilage cap is prominent, then it is advised that the tumor be surgically removed.

Osteochondromas have a low rate of malignancy (<1%) and resection of the tumor is suggested if symptoms such as pain, limitation of movement, or impingement on nerves or vessels occur. Resection of the tumor also takes place when the tumor increases in size and progresses towards malignancy. During surgical resection, the entire lesion along with the cartilaginous cap should be removed to minimize any chances of reoccurrences. Surgical treatment becomes the sole treatment of choice if common complications such as fractures, symptoms of peripheral nerves such as paresthesia, paraplegia, peroneal neuropathy, and upper limb neuropathy take place. A prophylactic resection is suggested if the lesion lies next to a vessel.

Depending on the size and location of the tumor, the time it takes to return to normal daily activities varies between individuals. Limitation on some activities is advised if pain or discomfort persists after surgical excision.

There are exceptions, but levels of alpha-glucosidase determines the type of GSD II an individual may have. More alpha glucosidase present in the individuals muscles means symptoms occur later in life and progress more slowly. GSD II is broadly divided into two onset forms based on the age symptoms occur.

Infantile-onset form is usually diagnosed at 4–8 months; muscles appear normal but are limp and weak preventing them from lifting their head or rolling over. As the disease progresses heart muscles thicken and progressively fail. Without treatment death usually occurs due to heart failure and respiratory weakness.

Late or later onset form occurs later than one to two years and progresses more slowly than Infantile-onset form. One of the first symptoms is a progressive decrease in muscle strength starting with the legs and moving to smaller muscles in the trunk and arms, such as the diaphragm and other muscles required for breathing. Respiratory failure is the most common cause of death. Enlargement of the heart muscles and rhythm disturbances are not significant features but do occur in some cases.

Urologic disease can involve congenital or acquired dysfunction of the urinary system.

Kidney diseases are normally investigated and treated by nephrologists, while the specialty of urology deals with problems in the other organs. Gynecologists may deal with problems of incontinence in women.

Diseases of other bodily systems also have a direct effect on urogenital function. For instance, it has been shown that protein released by the kidneys in diabetes mellitus sensitises the kidney to the damaging effects of hypertension.

Diabetes also can have a direct effect on urination due to peripheral neuropathies which occur in some individuals with poorly controlled diabetics.

This is a list of the states of India ranked in order of percentage of people who are overweight or obese, based on data from the 2007 National Family Health Survey.

Obesity in India has reached epidemic proportions in the 21st century, with morbid obesity affecting 5% of the country's population. India is following a trend of other developing countries that are steadily becoming more obese. Unhealthy, processed food has become much more accessible following India's continued integration in global food markets. This, combined with rising middle class incomes, is increasing the average caloric intake per individual among the middle class and above income households. Obesity is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease, NGOs such as the Indian Heart Association have been raising awareness about this issue.

While studying 22 different SNPs near to MC-R gene, scientists have identified a SNP (single nucleotide polymorphism) named rs12970134 to be mostly associated with waist circumference. In this study more than two thousand individuals of Indian origin participated and the aforementioned SNP is highly prevalent in this group.

Internationally, a BMI over 25 kg/m2 is considered overweight. Due to genetic tendency of Indians towards abdominal obesity and its associated risk of related lifestyle diseases like Diabetes & Heart Disease, Guidelines for diagnosis of obesity and abdominal obesity for India have been published in JAPI (2009) that a BMI over 23 kg/m2 is considered overweight. Further definitions: Normal BMI: 18.0-22.9 kg/m2, Overweight: 23.0-24.9 kg/m2, Obesity: >25 kg/m2.

Meningeal carcinomatosis is a condition in which a solid tumor diffusely spreads to the leptomeninges. Lung tumors, breast tumors, and malignant melanoma comprise the majority of solid tumors spreading to the leptomeninges.

Although rare, Meningeal carcinomatosis can arise from cervical cancer. Only 8 cases of MC arising from squamous cell carcinoma of the uterine cervix are previously reported in the literature.

The fertile eunuch syndrome is a cause of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism caused by a luteinizing hormone deficiency. It is characterized by hypogonadism with spermatogenesis. Pasqualini and Bur published the first case of eunuchoidism with preserved spermatogenesis in 1950 in la Revista de la Asociación Médica Argentina.

The hypoandrogenism with spermatogenesis syndrome included: (a) eunuchoidism, (b) testis with normal spermatogenesis and full volume, with mature spermatozoids in a high proportion of seminiferous tubes and undifferentiated and immature Leydig cells (c) full functional compensation through the administration of chorionic gonadotropin hormone, while hCG is administered (d) total urinary gonadotrophins within normal limits (e) this definition implies the normal activity of the pituitary and the absence of congenital malformations in general. In describing five other similar cases in 1953, Mc Cullagh & al coined the term fertile eunuch introducing it in the English literature. Unfortunately, this term is incorrect and should not be employed. Indeed, these patients are not really eunuchs. Moreover, as it will be explained later, they are not usually fertile if not treated.

A first step in the understanding of the physiopathology of Pasqualini syndrome was the absence of Lutheinizing Hormone (LH) in plasma and urine of patients. The second breakthrough was the functional and genetic studies that validated the hypothesis of a functional deficit of LH in these men. Inactivating LH mutations will then also be described in some women. Different groups demonstrated in these cases a LH with varying degrees of immunological activity but biologically inactive in most of the patients, due to one or more inactivating mutations in the LHB gene. Finally, the full comprehension of Pasqualini syndrome allowed to reverse the hypoandrogenic phenotype and to restore fertility in these patients through the use of chorionic gonadotropin and the modern in-vitro fertility techniques