Diagnosis is usually based on serology (looking for an antibody response) rather than looking for the organism itself. Serology allows the detection of chronic infection by the appearance of high levels of the antibody against the virulent form of the bacterium. Molecular detection of bacterial DNA is increasingly used. Culture is technically difficult and not routinely available in most microbiology laboratories.

Q fever can cause endocarditis (infection of the heart valves) which may require transoesophageal echocardiography to diagnose. Q fever hepatitis manifests as an elevation of alanine transaminase and aspartate transaminase, but a definitive diagnosis is only possible on liver biopsy, which shows the characteristic fibrin ring granulomas.

Protection is offered by Q-Vax, a whole-cell, inactivated vaccine developed by an Australian vaccine manufacturing company, CSL Limited. The intradermal vaccination is composed of killed "C. burnetii" organisms. Skin and blood tests should be done before vaccination to identify pre-existing immunity, because vaccinating people who already have an immunity can result in a severe local reaction. After a single dose of vaccine, protective immunity lasts for many years. Revaccination is not generally required. Annual screening is typically recommended.

In 2001, Australia introduced a national Q fever vaccination program for people working in “at risk” occupations. Vaccinated or previously exposed people may have their status recorded on the Australian Q Fever Register, which may be a condition of employment in the meat processing industry. An earlier killed vaccine had been developed in the Soviet Union, but its side effects prevented its licensing abroad.

Preliminary results suggest vaccination of animals may be a method of control. Published trials proved that use of a registered phase vaccine (Coxevac) on infected farms is a tool of major interest to manage or prevent early or late abortion, repeat breeding, anoestrus, silent oestrus, metritis, and decreases in milk yield when "C. burnetii" is the major cause of these problems.

The CDC states that PCR testing from a single blood draw is not sufficiently sensitive for "B." "henselae" testing, and can result in high false negative rates due to a small sample volume and levels below the limit of molecular detection.

"Bartonella" spp. are fastidious, slow-growing bacteria that are difficult to grow using traditional solid agar plate culture methods due to complex nutritional requirements and potentially a low number of circulating bacteria. This conventional method of culturing "Bartonella" spp. from blood inoculates plated directly onto solid agar plates requires an extended incubation period of 21 days due to the slow growth rate.

"Bartonella" growth rates improve when cultured in an enrichment inoculation step in a liquid insect-based medium such as "Bartonella" α-Proteobacteria Growth Medium (BAPGM) or Schneider’s Drosophila-based insect powder medium. Several studies have optimized the growing conditions of "Bartonella" spp. cultures in these liquid media, with no change in bacterial protein expressions or host interactions "in vitro". Insect-based liquid media supports the growth and co-culturing of at least seven "Bartonella" species, reduces bacterial culturing time and facilitates PCR detection and isolation of "Bartonella" spp. from animal and patient samples. Research shows that DNA may be detected following direct extraction from blood samples and become negative following enrichment culture, thus PCR is recommended after direct sample extraction and also following incubation in enrichment culture. Several studies have successfully optimized sensitivity and specificity by using PCR amplification (pre-enrichment PCR) and enrichment culturing of blood draw samples, followed by PCR (post-enrichment PCR) and DNA sequence identification.

Diagnosis is achieved most commonly by serologic testing of the blood for the presence of antibodies against the ehrlichia organism. Many veterinarians routinely test for the disease, especially in enzootic areas. During the acute phase of infection, the test can be falsely negative because the body will not have had time to make antibodies to the infection. As such, the test should be repeated. A PCR (polymerase chain reaction) test can be performed during this stage to detect genetic material of the bacteria. The PCR test is more likely to yield a negative result during the subclinical and chronic disease phases. In addition, blood tests may show abnormalities in the numbers of red blood cells, white blood cells, and most commonly platelets, if the disease is present. Uncommonly, a diagnosis can be made by looking under a microscope at a blood smear for the presence of the "ehrlichia" morulae, which sometimes can be seen as intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies within a white blood cell.

The prognosis is good for dogs with acute ehrlichiosis. For dogs that have reached the chronic stage of the disease, the prognosis is guarded. When bone marrow suppression occurs and there are low levels of blood cells, the animal may not respond to treatment.

The diagnosis of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS) tonsillitis can be confirmed by culture of samples obtained by swabbing both tonsillar surfaces and the posterior pharyngeal wall and plating them on sheep blood agar medium. The isolation rate can be increased by incubating the cultures under anaerobic conditions and using selective growth media. A single throat culture has a sensitivity of 90–95% for the detection of GABHS (which means that GABHS is actually present 5–10% of the time culture suggests that it is absent). This small percentage of false-negative results are part of the characteristics of the tests used but are also possible if the patient has received antibiotics prior to testing. Identification requires 24 to 48 hours by culture but rapid screening tests (10–60 minutes), which have a sensitivity of 85–90%, are available. Older antigen tests detect the surface Lancefield group A carbohydrate. Newer tests identify GABHS serotypes using nucleic acid (DNA) probes or polymerase chain reaction. Bacterial culture may need to be performed in cases of a negative rapid streptococcal test.

True infection with GABHS, rather than colonization, is defined arbitrarily as the presence of >10 colonies of GABHS per blood agar plate. However, this method is difficult to implement because of the overlap between carriers and infected patients. An increase in antistreptolysin O (ASO) streptococcal antibody titer 3–6 weeks following the acute infection can provide retrospective evidence of GABHS infection and is considered definitive proof of GABHS infection.

Increased values of secreted phospholipase A2 and altered fatty acid metabolism in patients with tonsillitis may have diagnostic utility.

The diagnosis of chickenpox is primarily based on the signs and symptoms, with typical early symptoms followed by a characteristic rash. Confirmation of the diagnosis is by examination of the fluid within the vesicles of the rash, or by testing blood for evidence of an acute immunologic response.

Vesicular fluid can be examined with a Tzanck smear, or by testing for direct fluorescent antibody. The fluid can also be "cultured", whereby attempts are made to grow the virus from a fluid sample. Blood tests can be used to identify a response to acute infection (IgM) or previous infection and subsequent immunity (IgG).

Prenatal diagnosis of fetal varicella infection can be performed using ultrasound, though a delay of 5 weeks following primary maternal infection is advised. A PCR (DNA) test of the mother's amniotic fluid can also be performed, though the risk of spontaneous abortion due to the amniocentesis procedure is higher than the risk of the baby's developing fetal varicella syndrome.

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) evolved from Methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) otherwise known as common "S. aureus". Many people are natural carriers of "S. aureus", without being affected in any way. MSSA was treatable with the antibiotic methicillin until it acquired the gene for antibiotic resistance. Though genetic mapping of various strains of MRSA, scientists have found that MSSA acquired the mecA gene in the 1960s, which accounts for its pathogenicity, before this it had a predominantly commensal relationship with humans. It is theorized that when this "S. aureus" strain that had acquired the mecA gene was introduced into hospitals, it came into contact with other hospital bacteria that had already been exposed to high levels of antibiotics. When exposed to such high levels of antibiotics, the hospital bacteria suddenly found themselves in an environment that had a high level of selection for antibiotic resistance, and thus resistance to multiple antibiotics formed within these hospital populations. When "S. aureus" came into contact with these populations, the multiple genes that code for antibiotic resistance to different drugs were then acquired by MRSA, making it nearly impossible to control. It is thought that MSSA acquired the resistance gene through the horizontal gene transfer, a method in which genetic information can be passed within a generation, and spread rapidly through its own population as was illustrated in multiple studies. Horizontal gene transfer speeds the process of genetic transfer since there is no need to wait an entire generation time for gene to be passed on. Since most antibiotics do not work on MRSA, physicians have to turn to alternative methods based in Darwinian medicine. However prevention is the most preferred method of avoiding antibiotic resistance. By reducing unnecessary antibiotic use in human and animal populations, antibiotics resistance can be slowed.

The spread of chickenpox can be prevented by isolating affected individuals. Contagion is by exposure to respiratory droplets, or direct contact with lesions, within a period lasting from three days before the onset of the rash, to four days after the onset of the rash. The chickenpox virus is susceptible to disinfectants, notably chlorine bleach (i.e., sodium hypochlorite). Like all enveloped viruses, it is sensitive to desiccation, heat and detergents.

Many cases of croup have been prevented by immunization for influenza and diphtheria. At one time, croup referred to a diphtherial disease, but with vaccination, diphtheria is now rare in the developed world.

This disease is diagnosed mainly by the appearance of well-demarcated rash and inflammation. Blood cultures are unreliable for diagnosis of the disease, but may be used to test for sepsis. Erysipelas must be differentiated from herpes zoster, angioedema, contact dermatitis, and diffuse inflammatory carcinoma of the breast.

Erysipelas can be distinguished from cellulitis by its raised advancing edges and sharp borders. Elevation of the antistreptolysin O titer occurs after around 10 days of illness.

Treatments to reduce the discomfort from tonsillitis include:

- pain and fever reducing medications such as paracetamol (acetaminophen) and ibuprofen

- warm salt water gargle, lozenges, or warm liquids

When tonsillitis is caused by a virus, the length of illness depends on which virus is involved. Usually, a complete recovery is made within one week; however, symptoms may last for up to two weeks.

Fever and sickness behavior and other signs of infection are often taken to be due to them. However, they are evolved physiological and behavioral responses of the host to clear itself of the infection. Instead of incurring the costs of deploying these evolved responses to infections, the body opts to tolerate an infection as an alternative to seeking to control or remove the infecting pathogen.

Subclinical infections are important since they allow infections to spread from a reserve of carriers. They also can cause clinical problems unrelated to the direct issue of infection. For example, in the case of urinary tract infections in women, this infection may cause preterm delivery if the person becomes pregnant without proper treatment.

The most commonly used system for classifying the severity of croup is the Westley score. It is primarily used for research purposes rather than in clinical practice. It is the sum of points assigned for five factors: level of consciousness, cyanosis, stridor, air entry, and retractions. The points given for each factor is listed in the adjacent table, and the final score ranges from 0 to 17.

- A total score of ≤ 2 indicates "mild" croup. The characteristic barking cough and hoarseness may be present, but there is no stridor at rest.

- A total score of 3–5 is classified as "moderate" croup. It presents with easily heard stridor, but with few other signs.

- A total score of 6–11 is "severe" croup. It also presents with obvious stridor, but also features marked chest wall indrawing.

- A total score of ≥ 12 indicates impending respiratory failure. The barking cough and stridor may no longer be prominent at this stage.

85% of children presenting to the emergency department have mild disease; severe croup is rare (<1%).

Diagnosis of FVR is usually by clinical signs, especially corneal ulceration. Definitive diagnosis can be done by direct immunofluorescence or virus isolation. However, many healthy cats are subclinical carriers of feline herpes virus, so a positive test for FHV-1 does not necessarily indicate that signs of an upper respiratory tract infection are due to FVR. Early in the course of the disease, histological analysis of cells from the tonsils, nasal tissue, or nictitating membrane (third eyelid) may show inclusion bodies (a collection of viral particles) within the nucleus of infected cells.

An emerging infectious disease (EID) is an infectious disease whose incidence has increased in the past 20 years and could increase in the near future. Emerging infections account for at least 12% of all human pathogens. EIDs are caused by newly identified species or strains (e.g. Severe acute respiratory syndrome, HIV/AIDS) that may have evolved from a known infection (e.g. influenza) or spread to a new population (e.g. West Nile fever) or to an area undergoing ecologic transformation (e.g. Lyme disease), or be "reemerging" infections, like drug resistant tuberculosis. Nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections, such as methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus are emerging in hospitals, and extremely problematic in that they are resistant to many antibiotics. Of growing concern are adverse synergistic interactions between emerging diseases and other infectious and non-infectious conditions leading to the development of novel syndemics. Many emerging diseases are zoonotic - an animal reservoir incubates the organism, with only occasional transmission into human populations.

The distinction between viral upper respiratory tract infections is loosely based on the location of symptoms with the common cold affecting primarily the nose, pharyngitis the throat, and bronchitis the lungs. However, there can be significant overlap and multiple areas can be affected. The common cold is frequently defined as nasal inflammation with varying amount of throat inflammation. Self-diagnosis is frequent. Isolation of the viral agent involved is rarely performed, and it is generally not possible to identify the virus type through symptoms.

Established in 1994 by the Duke Endocarditis Service and revised in 2000, the Duke criteria are a collection of major and minor criteria used to establish a diagnosis of infective endocarditis. According to the Duke criteria, diagnosis of infective endocarditis can be definite, possible, or rejected. A diagnosis of infective endocarditis is definite if either the following pathological "or" clinical criteria are met:

1. One of these pathological criteria:

- Histology or culture of a cardiac vegetation, an embolized vegetation, or intracardiac abscess from the heart finds microorganisms

- Active endocarditis

2. One of these combinations of clinical criteria

- 2 major clinical criteria

- 1 major and 3 minor criteria

- 5 minor criteria

Diagnosis of infective endocarditis is possible if one of the following combinations of clinical criteria are met:

- 1 major and 1 minor criteria

- 3 minor criteria are fulfilled

In general, the Duke criteria should be fulfilled in order to establish the diagnosis of endocarditis. The blood tests C reactive protein (CRP) and procalcitonin have not been found to be particularly useful in helping make or rule out the diagnosis.

As the Duke criteria rely heavily on the results of echocardiography, research has addressed when to order an echocardiogram by using signs and symptoms to predict occult endocarditis among patients with intravenous drug abuse and among non drug-abusing patients. Unfortunately, this research is over 20 years old and it is possible that changes in the epidemiology of endocarditis and bacteria such as staphylococci make the following estimates incorrect.

A subclinical infection (sometimes called a preinfection) is an infection that, being , is nearly or completely asymptomatic (no signs or symptoms). A subclinically infected person is thus an asymptomatic carrier of a microbe, intestinal parasite, or virus that usually is a pathogen causing illness, at least in some individuals. Many pathogens spread by being silently carried in this way by some of their host population. Such infections occur both in humans and nonhuman animals. An example of an asymptomatic infection is a mild common cold that is not noticed by the infected individual. Since subclinical infections often occur without eventual overt sign, their existence is only identified by microbiological culture or DNA techniques such as polymerase chain reaction.

There is a vaccine for FHV-1 available (ATCvet code: , plus various combination vaccines), but although it limits or weakens the severity of the disease and may reduce viral shedding, it does not prevent infection with FVR. Studies have shown a duration of immunity of this vaccine to be at least three years. The use of serology to demonstrate circulating antibodies to FHV-1 has been shown to have a positive predictive value for indicating protection from this disease.

Depending on the severity, treatment involves either oral or intravenous antibiotics, using penicillins, clindamycin, or erythromycin. While illness symptoms resolve in a day or two, the skin may take weeks to return to normal.

Because of the risk of reinfection, prophylactic antibiotics are sometimes used after resolution of the initial condition. However, this approach does not always stop reinfection.

The only useful ways to reduce the spread of cold viruses are physical measures such as hand washing and face masks; in the healthcare environment, gowns and disposable gloves are also used. Isolation or quarantine is not used as the disease is so widespread and symptoms are non-specific. Vaccination has proved difficult as there are many viruses involved and they mutate rapidly. Creation of a broadly effective vaccine is, thus, highly improbable.

Regular hand washing appears to be effective in reducing the transmission of cold viruses, especially among children. Whether the addition of antivirals or antibacterials to normal hand washing provides greater benefit is unknown. Wearing face masks when around people who are infected may be beneficial; however, there is insufficient evidence for maintaining a greater social distance.

It is unclear if zinc supplements affect the frequency of colds. Routine vitamin C supplements do not reduce the risk or severity of the common cold, though they may reduce its duration. Gargling with water was found useful in one small trial.

People infected with CMV develop antibodies to it, initially IgM later IgG indicating current infection and immunity respectively. If the virus is detected in the blood, saliva, urine or other body tissues, it means that the person has an active infection.

When infected with CMV, most women have no symptoms, but some may have symptoms resembling mononucleosis. Women who develop a mononucleosis-like illness during pregnancy should consult their medical provider.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) does not recommend routine maternal screening for CMV infection during pregnancy because there is no test that can definitively rule out primary CMV infection during pregnancy. Women who are concerned about CMV infection during pregnancy should practice CMV prevention measures.Considering that the CMV virus is present in saliva, urine, tears, blood, mucus, and other bodily fluids, frequent hand washing with soap and water is important after contact with diapers or oral secretions, especially with a child who is in daycare or interacting with other young children on a regular basis.

A diagnosis of congenital CMV infection can be made if the virus is found in an infant's urine, saliva, blood, or other body tissues during the first week after birth. Antibody tests cannot be used to diagnose congenital CMV; a diagnosis can only be made if the virus is detected during the first week of life. Congenital CMV cannot be diagnosed if the infant is tested more than one week after birth.

Visually healthy infants are not routinely tested for CMV infection although only 10–20% will show signs of infection at birth though up to 80% may go onto show signs of prenatal infection in later life. If a pregnant woman finds out that she has become infected with CMV for the first time during her pregnancy, she should have her infant tested for CMV as soon as possible after birth.