Gleich's syndrome, which may be a form of lymphocyte-variant hypereosinophilia, involves hypereosinophilia, elevated blood levels of IgM antibodies, and clonal expansion of T cells. Similar to lymphocyte=variant hypereosinophilia, the increased levels of blood eosinophils in Gleich's syndrome is thought to be secondary to the secretion of eosinophil-stimulating cytokines by a T cell clone(s).

Familial eosinophilia is a rare congenital disorder characterized by the presence of sustained elevations in blood eosinophil levels that reach ranges diagnostic of eosinophilia or, far more commonly, hypereosinophilia. It is an autosomal dominant disorder in which genetic linkage gene mapping family studies localize the gene responsible for it to chromosome 5 at position q31-q33, between markers D5S642 and D5S816. This region contains a cytokine gene cluster which includes three genes whose protein products function in regulating the development and proliferation of eosinophils viz., interleukin 3, interleukin 5, and colony stimulating factor 2. However, no functional sequence genetic polylmophisms are found within the promoter, exons, or introns, of these genes or within the common gene enhancer for interleukin 3 or colony stimulating factor 2. This suggests that the primary defect in familial eosinophilia is not a mutation in one of these genes but rather in another gene within this chromosome area. Clinical manifestations and tissue destruction related to the eosinophilia in this disorder are uncommon: familial eosinophilia typically has a benign phenotype compared to other congenital and acquired eosinophilic diseases.

Most patients with "ETV6-ACSL6"-related disease present with findings similar to eosinophilia, hypereosinophila, or chronic eosinophilic leukemia; at least 4 cases presented with eosinophilia plus findings of the red blood cell neoplasm, polycythemia vera; three cases resembled acute myelogenous leukemia; and one case presented with findings of a combined Myelodysplastic syndrome/myeloproliferative neoplasm. Best treatments for "ETV6-ACSL6"-related disease are unclear. Patients with the polycythemia vera form of the disease have been treated by reducing the circulating red blood cell load by phlebotomy or suppressing red blood cell formation using hydroxyurea. Individual case studies report that "ETV6-ACSL6"-associated disease is insensitive to tyrosine kinase inhibitors. Best treatment currently available, therefore, may involve chemotherapy and bone marrow transplantion.

Cytochemical properties of the leukemic cells must be typical of mast cell derivation (presence of metachromatic granules staining with alpha-naphthyl chloroacetate esterase, but not with peroxidase). Mast cell tryptase is an enzyme contained in mast cell granules. Mast cell numbers are best estimated by tryptase immunostaining because very poorly granulated cells may stain very weakly if at all for alpha-naphthol chloroacetate esterase.

The European Medicines Agency (EMA) estimated the prevalence of HES at the time of granting orphan drug designation for HES in 2004 at 1.5 in 100,000 people, corresponding to a current prevalence of about 8,000 in the EU, 5,000 in the U.S., and 2,000 in Japan.

Patients who lack chronic heart failure and those who respond well to Prednisone or a similar drug have a good prognosis. However, the mortality rate rises in patients with anaemia, chromosomal abnormalities or a very high white blood cell count.

Acute mast cell leukemia is extremely aggressive and has a grave prognosis. In most cases, multi-organ failure including bone marrow failure develops over weeks to months. Median survival after diagnosis is only about 6 months.

In the heart, there are two forms of the hypereosinophilic syndrome, endomyocardial fibrosis and Loeffler's endocarditis.

- Endomyocardial fibrosis (also known as Davies disease) is seen in tropical areas.

- Loeffler's endocarditis does not have any geographic predisposition.

Lymphocyte-variant hypereosinophilia is a rare disease in which eosinophilia is caused by aberrant T cell lymphocytes which secrete cytokines (e.g. interleukin-5) that stimulate the proliferation of eosinophil precursor cells. The disease, which occasionally proceeds to a malignant lymphocytic phase, clearly reflects a clonal disturbance in lymphocytes, not eosinophils, and therefore is not a clonal hypereosinophilia. Similar non-clonal eosinophilia due to eosinophil precursor cell stimulation by clonal malignant cells is sometimes seen in cases of Hodgkin disease, B-cell lymphoma, T-cell lymphomas, T cell leukemias, and Langerhans cell histiocytosis. Other hematological diseases are associated with eosinophilia but regarded as clonal eosinophilia associated with a more important clonal malignancy in another cell type. For example, eosinophilia occurs in 20% to 30% of patients with systemic mastocytosis. Also referred to as SM-eo (systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia) or SM-SEL (systemic mastocytosis with chronic eosinophilic leukemia), this disease's clonal eosinophils bear the same driving mutation, D816V in the"KIT" gene, as the clonal mast cells.

Blood films display a range of abnormalities. A monocyte count of >1x10/L is essential for a diagnosis of CMML. Other features may include; leukocytosis (50% of cases); left shift and dysplasia of monocytes and granulocytes; presence of metamyelocytes, myelocytes and promonocytes; monocytes with hypersegmented/abnormal shaped nuclei, increased cytoplasmic basophilia and/or the presence of cytoplasmic granules; eosinophilia (in cases of CMML with eosinophilia); and spherocytosis (in cases of DCT positive haemolytic anaemia). Platelet counts may be reduced, increased or normal. Haemoglobin levels are usually reduced with normocytic and normochromic red blood cells. Autoantibodies and cold agglutinins may be present and 10% of CMML is DCT positive.

Bone marrow aspirates will display hypercellularity with increased counts of granulocytic and monocytic cells. Bone marrow core biopsies may show a predominance of myelocytic and monocytic cells, abnormal localisation of immature precursors and dysplastic megakaryocytes. Monocytic nodules are a common feature in biopsies.

The phenotypical characteristics of CMML are; CD11b, CD11c, CD14, CD33, CD45 and CD64 seen in 100% of cases; CD13 found in 95% of cases; CD4 found in 76% of cases; HLA-DR found in 71% of cases; CD56 found in 53% of cases; CD2 found in 34% of cases; CD16 found in 29% of cases; CD10 found in 28% of cases; CD23 and CD7 found in 9% of cases; and CD117 found in 5% of cases.

The FAB criteria for diagnosis are as follows:

- Monocyte count >1x10/L

- 0–19% blasts in bone marrow

- <5% blasts in peripheral blood

The FAB also arbitrarily categorises CMML into myelodysplastic-like and myeloproliferative-like groups. A white blood count of 13x10 is used as a cut-off to differentiate the two.

White blood counts exceeding 100 x 10^9 / L (100,000 / microL) present symptoms of tissue hypoxia and may signal possible neurological and respiratory distress. Continuing research has shown that patients have suffered from hypoxia at leukocyte levels below 100 x 10^9 / L (100,000 / microL), therefore patients with leukemia need regular neurological and respiratory monitoring when leukocyte counts are approaching 100 x 10^9 / L (100,000 / microL) to decrease chances of tissue hypoxia. Biopsy's acquired are examined for damage to microvasculature, which serves as evidence of hypoxia through the identification of leukocyte blockage within the tissue. Due to a biopsy's invasive nature and the risks associated with the procedure, it is only used when deemed necessary.

Measurements for arterial pO2 have shown to be falsely decreased in patients with hyperleuckocytosis because of white blood cells ability to utilize oxygen. Pulse oximetry should be used to more accurately assess pO2 levels of a patient suspected to be suffering from leukocytosis.

Automated blood cell counters may be inaccurate due to fragments of blast cells being labeled on blood smears as platelets. The most accurate form of confirming platelet counts is by using a manual platelet count and review of a peripheral smear.

Serum potassium levels may also be artificially elevated caused by a release from leukemic blasts during in vitro clotting process, therefore serum potassium levels should be monitored by herparinized (the addition of herapin prevents coagulation) plasma samples in order to obtain accurate results of potassium levels.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation may occur in a significant amount of patients with presentation of various degrees of thrombin generation, followed by decreased fibrinogen and increased fibrinolysis.

Spontaneous tumor lysis syndrome is present in approximately 10 percent of patients with leuckostasis, lab tests are used to measure the potential of elevated serum concentrations such as uric acid, potassium, phosphate, and hyocalcemia.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation and spontaneous tumor lysis syndrome have the ability to develop before and after chemotherapy treatment. Patients undergoing this type of therapy need to be closely monitored before and after in addition to undergoing prophylactic measures to prevent possible complications.

It is an acute syndrome requiring aggressive cytoreductive including chemotherapy and/or leukapheresis to both reduce the number of circulating leukocytes and to break apart any aggregates that have already formed. Such rapid and massive lysis of tissue poses risk of complications (tumor lysis syndrome), but it is necessary to avoid stroke.

Leukostasis is different from leukemic infiltration which is a neoplastic process where leukemic cells invade organs.

Pancytopenia usually requires a bone marrow biopsy in order to distinguish among different causes.

- anemia: hemoglobin < 13.5 g/dL (male) or 12 g/dL (female).

- leukopenia: total white cell count < 4.0 x 10/L. Decrease in all types of white blood cells (revealed by doing a differential count).

- thrombocytopenia: platelet count < 150×10/L.

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (), sometimes called idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a condition in which autoantibodies are directed against a patient's own platelets, causing platelet destruction and thrombocytopenia. Anti-platelet autoantibodies in a pregnant woman with immune thrombocytopenic purpura will attack the patient's own platelets and will also cross the placenta and react against fetal platelets. Therefore, is a significant cause of fetal and neonatal immune thrombocytopenia. Approximately 10% of newborns affected by will have platelet counts <50,000 μL and 1% to 2% will have a risk of intracerebral hemorrhage comparable to infants with .

Mothers with thrombocytopenia or a previous diagnosis of should be tested for serum antiplatelet antibodies. A woman with symptomatic thrombocytopenia and an identifiable antiplatelet antibody should be started on therapy for their which may include steroids or . Fetal blood analysis to determine the platelet count is not generally performed as -induced thrombocytopenia in the fetus is generally less severe than . Platelet transfusions may be performed in newborns, depending on the degree of thrombocytopenia.

The most rapidly effective treatment in infants with severe hemorrhage and/or severe thrombocytopenia (30,000 μL) an infusion of (1 g/kg/day for two days) in the infant has been shown to rapidly increase platelet count and reduce the risk of related injury.

After a first affected pregnancy, if a mother has plans for a subsequent pregnancy, then the mother and father should be typed for platelet antigens and the mother screened for alloantibodies. Testing is available through reference laboratories (such as ). testing of the father can be used to determine zygosiity of the involved antigen and therefore risk to future pregnancies (if homozygous for the antigen, all subsequent pregnancies will be affected, if heterozygous, there is an approximate 50% risk to each subsequent pregnancy). During subsequent pregnancies, the genotype of the fetus can also be determined using amniotic fluid analysis or maternal blood as early as 18 weeks gestation to definitively determine the risk to the fetus.

Treat the underlying cause

Blood transfusion (PRBC) according to need

Basopenia (or basocytopenia) is a form of agranulocytosis associated with a deficiency of basophils.

It has been proposed as an indicator of ovulation.It is difficult to detect without flow cytometry, because normal levels are so low.

It can be defined as less than 0.01 x 10 / L.

The diagnostic criteria for tropical pulmonary eosinophilia include:

- a history supportive of exposure to lymphatic filariasis;

- a peripheral eosinophilia count greater than 3 × 10/L);

- an elevated serum IgE levels (> 1000 kU/L);

- increased titers of antifilarial antibodies;

- peripheral blood negative for microfilariae; and

- a clinical response to diethylcarbamazine.

High antifilarial IgG titers to microfilariae often result in cross reactivity with other nonfilarial helminth antigens, such as strongyloides and schistosoma antigens, as demonstrated in reported cases. It is important to exclude other parasitic infections before tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is diagnosed, by serological tests, examination of stool specimens in a laboratory experienced in parasitic infections, or a trial of anthelminthic medication. Other parasitic infections, such as the zoonotic filariae, dirofilariasis, ascariasis, strongyloides, visceral larva migrans and hookworm disease, may also be confused with tropical pulmonary eosinophilia because of overlapping clinical features, serological profile and response to diethylcarbamazine. Radiological findings are nonspecific, with normal appearance on chest X-ray in up to 20% of patients. Lung biopsy is not part of the routine diagnostic workup of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia.

The dramatic response to a commonly used drug for filaria (diethylcarbamazine) almost confirms the diagnosis. No universal treatment guidelines have been established for tropical pulmonary eosinophilia. The antifilarial diethylcarbamazine (6 mg/kg/day in three divided doses for 21 days remains the main therapeutic agent, and is generally well tolerated. Reported side effects include headache, fever, pruritus and gastrointestinal upset. The eosinophil count often falls dramatically within 7–10 days of starting treatment.

The differential diagnosis for pancreatitis includes but is not limited to cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis, perforated peptic ulcer, bowel infarction, small bowel obstruction, hepatitis and mesenteric ischemia.

Diagnosis requires 2 of the 3 following criteria:

- Characteristic acute onset of epigastric or vague abdominal pain that may radiate to the back (see signs and symptoms above)

- Serum amylase or lipase levels ≥ 3 times the upper limit of normal

- An imaging study with characteristic changes. CT, MRI, abdominal ultrasound or endoscopic ultrasound can be used for diagnosis.

Amylase and lipase are 2 enzymes produced by the pancreas. Elevations in lipase are generally considered a better indicator for pancreatitis as it has greater specificity and has a longer half life.

For imaging, abdominal ultrasound is convenient, simple, non-invasive, and inexpensive. It is more sensitive and specific for pancreatitis from gallstones than other imaging modalities. However, in 25–35% of patients the view of the pancreas can be obstructed by bowel gas making it difficult to evaluate.

A contrast-enhanced CT scan is usually performed more than 48 hours after the onset of pain to evaluate for pancreatic necrosis and extrapancreatic fluid as well as predict the severity of the disease. CT scanning earlier can be falsely reassuring.

ERCP or an endoscopic ultrasound can also be used if a biliary cause for pancreatitis is suspected.

Due to the condition's rarity, it is frequently misdiagnosed, often as cerebral palsy. This results in patients often living their entire childhood with the condition untreated.

The diagnosis of SS can be made from a typical history, a trial of dopamine medications, and genetic testing. Not all patients show mutations in the GCH1 gene (GTP cyclohydrolase I), which makes genetic testing imperfect.

Sometimes a lumbar puncture is performed to measure concentrations of biopterin and neopterin, which can help determine the exact form of dopamine-responsive movement disorder: early onset parkinsonism (reduced biopterin and normal neopterin), GTP cyclohydrolase I deficiency (both decreased) and tyrosine hydroxylase deficiency (both normal).

In approximately half of cases, a phenylalanine loading test can be used to show decreased conversion from the amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine. This process uses BH4 as a cofactor.

During a sleep study (polysomnography), decreased twitching may be noticed during REM sleep.

An MRI scan of the brain can be used to look for conditions that can mimic SS (for example, metal deposition in the basal ganglia can indicate Wilson's disease or pantothenate kinase-associated neurodegeneration). Nuclear imaging of the brain using positron emission tomography (PET scan) shows a normal radiolabelled dopamine uptake in SS, contrary to the decreased uptake in Parkinson's disease.

Other differential diagnoses include metabolic disorders (such as GM2 gangliosidosis, phenylketonuria, hypothyroidism, Leigh disease) primarily dystonic juvenile parkinsonism, autosomal recessive early onset parkinsonism with diurnal fluctuation, early onset idiopathic parkinsonism, focal dystonias, dystonia musculorum deformans and dyspeptic dystonia with hiatal hernia.

- Diagnosis - main

- typically referral by GP to specialist Neurological Hospital e.g. National Hospital in London.

- very hard to diagnose as condition is dynamic w.r.t. time-of-day AND dynamic w.r.t. age of patient.

- correct diagnosis only made by a consultant neurologist with a complete 24-hour day-cycle observation(with video/film) at a Hospital i.e. morning(day1)->noon->afternoon->evening->late-night->sleep->morning(day2).

- patient with suspected SS required to walk in around hospital in front of Neuro'-consultant at selected daytime intervals to observe worsening walking pattern coincident with increased muscle tension in limbs.

- throughout the day, reducing leg-gait, thus shoe heels catching one another.

- diurnal affect of condition: morning(fresh/energetic), lunch(stiff limbs), afternoon(very stiff limbs), evening(limbs worsening), bedtime(limbs near frozen).

- muscle tension in thighs/arms: morning(normal), lunch(abnormal), afternoon(very abnormal), evening(bad), bedtime(frozen solid).

- Diagnosis - additional

- lack of self-esteem at school/college/University -> eating disorders in youth thus weight gains.

- lack of energy during late-daytime (teens/adult) -> compensate by over-eating.

Diagnostic methods

Diagnosis is based mainly on clinical findings and laboratory test results. Plasma concentrations of ammonia (>150 µmol/L) and citrulline (200-300 µmol/L) are elevated. Elevated levels of argininosuccinic acid (5-110 µmol/L) in the plasma or urine are diagnostic. Molecular genetic testing confirms diagnosis. Newborn screening for ASA is available in the U.S. and parts of Australia, and is considered in several European countries<

Due to the rarity of the disease, it is hard to estimate mortality rates or life expectancy. One 2003 study which followed 88 cases receiving two different kinds of treatment found that very few persons lived beyond age 20 and none beyond age 30.

Treatment of THB deficiencies consists of THB supplementation (2–20 mg/kg per day) or diet to control blood phenylalanine concentration and replacement therapy with neurotransmitters precursors (L-DOPA and 5-HTP) and supplements of folinic acid in DHPR deficiency.

Tetrahydrobiopterin is available as a tablet for oral administration in the form of "tetrahydrobiopterin dihydrochloride" (BH4*2HCL). BH4*2HCL is FDA approved under the trade name Kuvan. The typical cost of treating a patient with Kuvan is $100,000 per year. BioMarin holds the patent for Kuvan until at least 2024, but Par Pharmaceutical has a right to produce a generic version by 2020. BH4*2HCL is indicated at least in tetrahydrobiopterin deficiency caused by GTPCH deficiency or PTPS deficiency.

Individuals of sub-Saharan African descent with ferroportin Q248H are more likely to be diagnosed with African iron overload than individual without ferroportin mutation because individuals with ferroportin Q248H have elevated level of serum ferritin concentration. Individuals of African descent should also avoid drinking traditional beer.