Made by DATEXIS (Data Science and Text-based Information Systems) at Beuth University of Applied Sciences Berlin
Deep Learning Technology: Sebastian Arnold, Betty van Aken, Paul Grundmann, Felix A. Gers and Alexander Löser. Learning Contextualized Document Representations for Healthcare Answer Retrieval. The Web Conference 2020 (WWW'20)
Funded by The Federal Ministry for Economic Affairs and Energy; Grant: 01MD19013D, Smart-MD Project, Digital Technologies
They are benign lesions and malignant degeneration is rare. They are usually treated with curettage which however have a high recurrence rate of 25%. As such if an en-bloc resection is possible this is advisable
The diagnosis of salivary gland tumors utilize both tissue sampling and radiographic studies. Tissue sampling procedures include fine needle aspiration (FNA) and core needle biopsy (bigger needle comparing to FNA). Both of these procedures can be done in an outpatient setting. Diagnostic imaging techniques for salivary gland tumors include ultrasound, computer tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNA), operated in experienced hands, can determine whether the tumor is malignant in nature with sensitivity around 90%. FNA can also distinguish primary salivary tumor from metastatic disease.
Core needle biopsy can also be done in outpatient setting. It is more invasive but is more accurate compared to FNA with diagnostic accuracy greater than 97%. Furthermore, core needle biopsy allows more accurate histological typing of the tumor.
In terms of imaging studies, ultrasound can determine and characterize superficial parotid tumors. Certain types of salivary gland tumors have certain sonographic characteristics on ultrasound. Ultrasound is also frequently used to guide FNA or core needle biopsy.
CT allows direct, bilateral visualization of the salivary gland tumor and provides information about overall dimension and tissue invasion. CT is excellent for demonstrating bony invasion. MRI provides superior soft tissue delineation such as perineural invasion when compared to CT only.
It can be detected by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), but a biopsy is required for the definitive diagnosis. MRI findings typically show a well-circumscribed mass that is dark on T1-weighted images and bright on T2-weighted images. Central necrosis is often present and identifiable by imaging, especially in larger masses.
The first sign is normally a painless abdominal tumor that can be easily felt by the doctor. An ultrasound scan, computed tomography scan, or MRI scan is done first. A tumor biopsy is not typically performed due to the risk of creating fragments of cancer tissue and seeding the abdomen with malignant cells.
Staging is a standard way to describe the extent of spread of Wilms tumors, and to determine prognosis and treatments. Staging is based on anatomical findings and tumor cells pathology.
Plain film
often seen as a lobulated, eccentric radiolucent lesion
long axis parallel to long axis of long bone
no periosteal reaction (unless a complicating fracture present)
geographic bone destruction: almost 100%
well defined sclerotic margin: 86%
there can be presence of septations (pseudotrabeculation): 57% 2
there can be presence of matrix calcification in a small proportion of cases: 12.5%1
MRI
MR features are often not particularly specific. Signal characteristics include
T1 - low signal
T1 C+ (Gd) -
the majority (~70%) tend to show peripheral nodular enhancement
~ 30% diffuse contrast enhancement and this can be either homogeneous or heterogeneous 19
T2 - high signal
Bone scan
A scintigraphic "doughnut sign" has been described in this tumour type 11. However, this is very non-specific and can be found in a plethora of other bone lesions.
Some tests which detect cancer could be called "screening for epithelial dysplasia". The principle behind these tests is that physicians expect dysplasia to occur at the same rate in a typical individual as it would in many other people. Because of this, researchers design screening recommendations which assume that if a physician can find no dysplasia at certain time, then doing testing before waiting until new dysplasia could potentially develop would be a waste of medical resources for the patient and the healthcare provider because the chances of detecting anything is extremely low.
Some examples of this in practice are that if a patient whose endoscopy did not detect dysplasia on biopsy during screening for Barrett's esophagus, then research shows that there is little chance of any test detecting dysplasia for that patient within three years.
Individuals at average-risk for colorectal cancer should have another screening after ten years if they get a normal result and after five years if they have only one or two adenomatous polyps removed.
JCT often is described as benign, however one case of metastasis has been reported, so its malignant potential is uncertain. In most cases the tumor is encapsulated.
Clinically, hypertension, especially when severe or poorly controlled, combined with evidence of a kidney tumor via imaging or gross examination suggest a JCT. However, other kidney tumors can cause hypertension by secreting renin. JCTs have a variable appearance and have often being misdiagnosed as renal cell carcinomas; dynamic computed tomography is helpful in the differential diagnosis.
Post-operatively, the presence of renin granules in pathology specimens as well as immunohistochemical analyses could help differentiating this tumor from other primary renal tumors such as hemangiopericytoma, glomus tumor, metanephric adenoma, epithelioid angiomyolipoma, Wilms tumor, solitary fibrous tumor, and some epithelial neoplasms.
Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcomas are, by definition, "undifferentiated", meaning (as the name implies) that they do not bear a resemblance to any normal tissue.
The histomorphology, otherwise, is characterized by high cellularity, marked nuclear pleomorphism, usually accompanied by abundant mitotic activity (including atypical mitoses), and a spindle cell morphology. Necrosis is common and characteristic of high grade lesions.
Fibrosarcoma occurs most frequently in the mouth in dogs . The tumor is locally invasive, and often recurs following surgery . Radiation therapy and chemotherapy are also used in treatment. Fibrosarcoma is also a rare bone tumor in dogs.
In cats, fibrosarcoma occurs on the skin. It is also the most common vaccine-associated sarcoma. In 2014, Merial launched Oncept IL-2 in Europe for the management of such feline fibrosarcomas.
The diagnosis of synovial sarcoma is typically made based on histology and is confirmed by the presence of t(X;18) chromosomal translocation.
Recurrence rate of solid form of tumour is lower than classic form.
Ancillary testing for fibrosarcoma includes IHC, where vimentin is positive, cytokeratin and S100 are negative, and actin is variable.
Two cell types can be seen microscopically in synovial sarcoma. One fibrous type, known as a spindle or sarcomatous cell, is relatively small and uniform, and found in sheets. The other is epithelial in appearance. Classical synovial sarcoma has a biphasic appearance with both types present. Synovial sarcoma can also appear to be poorly differentiated or to be monophasic fibrous, consisting only of sheets of spindle cells. Some authorities state that, extremely rarely, there can be a monophasic epithelial form which causes difficulty in differential diagnosis. Depending on the site, there is similarity to biphenotypic sinonasal sarcoma, although the genetic findings are distinctive.
Like other soft tissue sarcomas, there is no universal grading system for reporting histopathology results. In Europe, the Trojani or French system is gaining in popularity while the NCI grading system is more common in the United States. The Trojani system scores the sample, depending on tumour differentiation, mitotic index, and tumour necrosis, between 0 and 6 and then converts this into a grade of between 1 and 3, with 1 representing a less aggressive tumour. The NCI system is also a three-grade one, but takes a number of other factors into account.
On conventional radiographs, the most common osseous presentation is a permeative lytic lesion with periosteal reaction. The classic description of lamellated or "onion-skin" type periosteal reaction is often associated with this lesion. Plain films add valuable information in the initial evaluation or screening. The wide zone of transition (e.g. permeative) is the most useful plain film characteristic in differentiation of benign versus aggressive or malignant lytic lesions.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) should be routinely used in the work-up of malignant tumors. It will show the full bony and soft tissue extent and relate the tumor to other nearby anatomic structures (e.g. vessels). Gadolinium contrast is not necessary as it does not give additional information over noncontrast studies, though some current researchers argue that dynamic, contrast-enhanced MRI may help determine the amount of necrosis within the tumor, thus help in determining response to treatment prior to surgery.
Computed axial tomography(CT) can also be used to define the extraosseous extent of the tumor, especially in the skull, spine, ribs, and pelvis. Both CT and MRI can be used to follow response to radiation and/or chemotherapy. Bone scintigraphy can also be used to follow tumor response to therapy.
In the group of malignant small round cell tumors which include Ewing's sarcoma, bone lymphoma, and small cell osteosarcoma, the cortex may appear almost normal radiographically, while permeative growth occurs throughout the Haversian channels. These tumours may be accompanied by a large soft-tissue mass while almost no bone destruction is visible. The radiographs frequently do not shown any signs of cortical destruction.
Radiographically, Ewing's sarcoma presents as "moth-eaten" destructive radiolucencies of the medulla and erosion of the cortex with expansion.
The treatment of choice for both benign and malignant SFT is complete "en bloc" surgical resection.
Prognosis in benign SFTs is excellent. About 8% will recur after first resection, with the recurrence usually cured after additional surgery.
The prognosis in malignant SFTs is much more guarded. Approximately 63% of patients will have a recurrence of their tumor, of which more than half will succumb to disease progression within 2 years. Adjuvant chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy in malignant SFT remains controversial.
Based on a survey of >800, surgical removal of the entire involved kidney plus the peri-renal fat appeared curative for the majority of all types of mesoblastic nephroma; the patient overall survival rate was 94%. Of the 4% of non-survivors, half were due to surgical or chemotherapeutic treatments. Another 4% of these patients suffered relapses, primarily in the local area of surgery rare cases of relapse due to lung or bone metastasis.. About 60% of these recurrent cases had a complete remission following further treatment. Recurrent disease was treated with a second surgery, radiation, and/or chemotherapy that often vincristine and actinomycin treatment. Removal of the entire afflicted kidney plus the peri-renal fat appears critical to avoiding local recurrences. In general, patients who were older than 3 months of age at diagnosis or had the cellular form of the disease, stage III disease, or involvement of renal lymph nodes had a higher recurrence rate. Among patients with these risk factors, only those with lymph node involvement are recommended for further therapy.
It has been suggested that mesoblastic nephroma patients with lymph node involvement or recurrent disease might benefit by adding the ALK inhibitor, crizotinib, or a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, either larotrectinib or entrectinib, to surgical, radiation, and/or chemotherapy treatment regimens. These drugs inhibit NTRK3's tyrosine kinase activity. Crizotinib has proven useful in treating certain cases of acute lymphoblastic leukemia that are associated with the "ETV6-NTRK3" fusion gene while larotrectinib and entrectinib have been useful in treating various cancers (e.g. a metastatic sarcoma, papillary thyroid cancer, non-small-cell lung carcinoma, gastrointestinal stromal tumor, mammary analog secretory carcinoma, and colorectal cancer) that are driven by mutated, overly active tyrosine kinases. Relevant to this issue, a 16-month-old girl with infantile fibrosarcoma harboring the "ETV6–NTRK3" fusion gene was successfully trated with larotrectinib. The success of these drugs, howwever, will likely depend on the relative malignancy-promoting roles of ETV6-NTRK3 protein's tyrosine kinase activity, the lose of ETV6-related transcription activity accompanying formation of ETV6-NTRK3 protein, and the various trisomy chromosomes that populate mesoblastic nephroma.
Diagnosis of mesoblastic nephroma and its particular type (i.e. classic, mixed, or cellular) is made by histological examination of tissues obtained at surgery. Besides its histological appearance, various features of this disease aid in making a differential diagnosis that distinguish it from the following childhood neoplasms:
- Wilm's tumor is the most common childhood kidney neoplasm, representing some 85% of cases. Unlike mesoblastic nephroma, 3 years of age. Bilateral kidney tumors, concurrent birth defects, and/or metastatic disease at presentation favor a diagnosis of Wilm's tumor.
- congenital infantile sarcoma is a rare aggressive sarcoma typically presenting in the lower extremities, head, or neck of infants during their first year of life. The histology, association with the "ETV6-NRTK3" fusion gene along with certain chromosome trisomies, and the distribution of markers for cell type (i.e. cyclin D1 and Beta-catenin) within this tumor are the same as those found in cellular mesoblastic nephroma. Mesoblastic nephroma and congenital infantile sarcoma appear to be the same diseases with mesoblastic lymphoma originating in the kidney and congenital infantile sarcoma originating in non-renal tissues.
- Rhabdoid tumor, which accounts for 5-510% of childhood kidney neoplasms, occurs predominantly in children from 1 to 2 years of age. Unlike mesoblastic nephroma, rhabdoid tumors may present with tumors in other tissues including in ~13% of cases, the brain. Rhabdoid tumors have a distinctive histology and abnormalities (i.e. loss of heterozygosity, single nucleotide polymorphism, and deletions) in chromosome 22.
- Clear cell sarcoma of the kidney, which is responsible for 5-10% of childhood pediatric tumors, occurs predominantly in children from 2 to 3 years of age. Unlike meoblastic nephorma, clear cell sarcoma of the kidney presents with metastasis, particularly to bone, in 5-6% of cases; it histology is diverse and has been mistaken for mesoblastic nephroma. One chromosomal translocations t,(10;17)(q22;p13), has been repeatedly reported to be associated with clear cell sarcoma of the kidney.
- Infantile myofibromatosis is a fibrous tumor of infancy and childhood most commonly presenting during the first 2 years of life as a single subcutaneous nodule of the head and neck region or less commonly as multiple lesions of skin, muscle, bone, and in ~33% of these latter cases, visceral organs. All of these lesions have an excellent prognosis and can regress spontaneously except for those in which there is visceral involvement where the prognosis is poor. While infantile myofibromatosis and classic mesoblastic nephroma have been suggested to be the same diseases because of their very similar histology, studies on the distribution of cell-type markers (i.e. cyclin D1 and Beta-catenin) indicate that they have different cellular origins.
Benign fibromas may, but need not be, removed. Removal is usually a brief outpatient procedure.
Other entities with similar clinical presentations include osteomyelitis, osteosarcoma (especially telangiectatic osteosarcoma), and eosinophilic granuloma. Soft-tissue neoplasms such as pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma (malignant fibrous histiocytoma) that erode into adjacent bone may also have a similar appearance.
Osteochondromas are often asymptomatic and may not cause any kind of discomfort. They are often found accidentally when an X-ray is done for an unrelated reason.
- X-rays are the first tests performed that characterize a lesion. They show a clear picture of dense structures of bones, and will also indicate bone growth pertaining to osteochondroma.
- Computed Tomography (CT) scan can identify the bony lesion in great details and show the presence of calcification. These tests also provide great details, especially in soft tissues with the aide of cross-sectional images.
- Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is the most accurate method for detecting bone masses in symptomatic cases to depict precise morphology of a tumor. It is used to verify if the palpable mass is continuous with the cortex of the affected bone and to differentiate an osteochondroma from other lesions on the surface of the bone. MRI can also be used to look for cartilage on the surface of tumor and can depict any vascular complications caused by the tumor. An MRI can identify tumors of the spinal column and is often used to diagnose low grade osteosarcoma.
- Ultrasound is done if aneurysms or pseudoaneurysms and venous or arterial thrombosis is suspected. Ultrasound is an accurate method for examining the cartilaginous cap of the osteochondroma. It is also a way of pinpointing bursitis. However, it cannot be used to predict if the growth of tumor is inward in regards to the cap.
- Angiography is used to detect vascular lesions caused by osteochondroma due to ossified cartilaginous cap. It is also used to characterize malignant transformation lesions through neovascularity.
- Clinical testing such as sequence analysis can be done of the entire coding regions of both "EXT1" and "EXT2" to detect mutations.
- A biopsy of the tissue sample of the tumor can also be taken to check for cancer.
Tests for osteochondroma can also identify diseases such as secondary peripheral chondrosarcoma and Multiple osteochondromatosis. In large, secondary chondrosarcoma arises at the site of osteochondroma due to increased thickness of the cartilage cap indicating potential malignant transformation. The symptoms of multiple osteochondromatosis are similar to solitary osteochondroma, but they are often more severe. Painless bumps can arise at the site of tumor and pain and other discomforts can also take place if pressure is put on the soft tissues, nerves, or blood vessels. Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (DEH) or Trevor's disease and metachondromatosis (MC) are considered differential diagnosis of both solitary and hereditary osteochondromas. DEH is described as a type of over growth at one or more epiphyses. Similar to osteochondroma, DEH is diagnosed prior to 15 years of age and the growth of lesions end at puberty, when the growth plates close. Metachondromatosis is a rare disorder that exhibit symptoms of both multiple osteochondromas and enchondromas in children and is also inherited in autosomal dominant mode.
The diagnosis is established by histologic examination of the tissue, i.e., biopsy or excision. Lipoblasts are often present; these are cells with an abundant clear multi-vacuolated cytoplasm and an eccentric darkly staining nucleus that is indented by the vacuoles.
The prognosis varies depending on the site of origin, the type of cancer cell, the tumor size, the depth, and proximity to lymph nodes. Well-differentiated liposarcomas treated with surgery, intra-operative distilled water lavage and radiation have a low recurrence rate (about 10%) and rarely metastasize.
Five-year survival rates vary from 100% to 56% based on histological subtype.
For surface epithelial-stromal tumors, the most common sites of metastasis are the pleural cavity (33%), the liver (26%), and the lungs (3%).