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Prior to any physical examination, the diagnosis of keratoconus frequently begins with an ophthalmologist's or optometrist's assessment of the person's medical history, particularly the chief complaint and other visual symptoms, the presence of any history of ocular disease or injury which might affect vision, and the presence of any family history of ocular disease. An eye chart, such as a standard Snellen chart of progressively smaller letters, is then used to determine the person's visual acuity. The eye examination may proceed to measurement of the localized curvature of the cornea with a manual keratometer, with detection of irregular astigmatism suggesting a possibility of keratoconus. Severe cases can exceed the instrument's measuring ability. A further indication can be provided by retinoscopy, in which a light beam is focused on the person's retina and the reflection, or reflex, observed as the examiner tilts the light source back and forth. Keratoconus is amongst the ophthalmic conditions that exhibit a scissor reflex action of two bands moving toward and away from each other like the blades of a pair of scissors.
If keratoconus is suspected, the ophthalmologist or optometrist will search for other characteristic findings of the disease by means of slit lamp examination of the cornea. An advanced case is usually readily apparent to the examiner, and can provide for an unambiguous diagnosis prior to more specialized testing. Under close examination, a ring of yellow-brown to olive-green pigmentation known as a Fleischer ring can be observed in around half of keratoconic eyes. The Fleischer ring, caused by deposition of the iron oxide hemosiderin within the corneal epithelium, is subtle and may not be readily detectable in all cases, but becomes more evident when viewed under a cobalt blue filter. Similarly, around 50% of subjects exhibit Vogt's striae, fine stress lines within the cornea caused by stretching and thinning. The striae temporarily disappear while slight pressure is applied to the eyeball. A highly pronounced cone can create a V-shaped indentation in the lower eyelid when the person's gaze is directed downwards, known as Munson's sign. Other clinical signs of keratoconus will normally have presented themselves long before Munson's sign becomes apparent, and so this finding, though a classic sign of the disease, tends not to be of primary diagnostic importance.
A handheld keratoscope, sometimes known as "Placido's disk", can provide a simple noninvasive visualization of the surface of the cornea by projecting a series of concentric rings of light onto the cornea. A more definitive diagnosis can be obtained using corneal topography, in which an automated instrument projects the illuminated pattern onto the cornea and determines its topography from analysis of the digital image. The topographical map indicates any distortions or scarring in the cornea, with keratoconus revealed by a characteristic steepening of curvature which is usually below the centreline of the eye. The technique can record a snapshot of the degree and extent of the deformation as a benchmark for assessing its rate of progression. It is of particular value in detecting the disorder in its early stages when other signs have not yet presented.
Once keratoconus has been diagnosed, its degree may be classified by several metrics:
- The steepness of greatest curvature from 'mild' ( 52 D);
- The morphology of the cone: 'nipple' (small: 5 mm and near-central), 'oval' (larger, below-center and often sagging), or 'globus' (more than 75% of cornea affected);
- The corneal thickness from mild (> 506 μm) to advanced (< 446 μm).
Increasing use of corneal topography has led to a decline in use of these terms.
Some suggest that more time spent outdoors during childhood is effective for prevention.
Various methods have been employed in an attempt to decrease the progression of myopia, although studies show mixed results. Many myopia treatment studies have a number of design drawbacks: small numbers, lack of adequate control group, and failure to mask examiners from knowledge of treatments used.
A diagnosis of myopia is typically made by an eye care professional, usually an optometrist or ophthalmologist. During a refraction, an autorefractor or retinoscope is used to give an initial objective assessment of the refractive status of each eye, then a phoropter is used to subjectively refine the patient's eyeglass prescription. Other types of refractive error are hyperopia, astigmatism, and presbyopia.
As the name implies, it is the bulge of weak sclera lined by ciliary body, which occurs about 2–3 mm away from the limbus. Its common causes are thinning of sclera following perforating injury, scleritis & absolute glaucoma.
it is part of anterior staphyloma
A staphyloma is an abnormal protrusion of the uveal tissue through a weak point in the eyeball. The protrusion is generally black in colour, due to the inner layers of the eye. It occurs due to weakening of outer layer of eye (cornea or sclera) by an inflammatory or degenerative condition.
It may be of 5 types, depending on the location on the eyeball ("bulbus oculi").
Galactosemic infants present clinical symptoms just days after the onset of a galactose diet. They include difficulty feeding, diarrhea, lethargy, hypotonia, jaundice, cataract, and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver). If not treated immediately, and many times even with treatment, severe mental retardation, verbal dyspraxia (difficulty), motor abnormalities, and reproductive complications may ensue. The most effective treatment for many of the initial symptoms is complete removal of galactose from the diet. Breast milk and cow's milk should be replaced with soy alternatives. Infant formula based on casein hydrolysates and dextrin maltose as a carbohydrate source can also be used for initial management, but are still high in galactose. The reason for long-term complications despite a discontinuation of the galactose diet is vaguely understood. However, it has been suggested that endogenous (internal) production of galactose may be the cause.
The treatment for galactosemic cataract is no different from general galactosemia treatment. In fact, galactosemic cataract is one of the few symptoms that is actually reversible. Infants should be immediately removed from a galactose diet when symptoms present, and the cataract should disappear and visibility should return to normal. Aldose reductase inhibitors, such as sorbinil, have also proven promising in preventing and reversing galactosemic cataracts. AR inhibitors hinder aldose reductase from synthesizing galactitol in the lens, and thus restricts the osmotic swelling of the lens fibers. Other AR inhibitors include the acetic acid compounds zopolrestat, tolrestat, alrestatin, and epalrestat. Many of these compounds have not been successful in clinical trials due to adverse pharmokinetic properties, inadequate efficacy and efficiency, and toxic side effects. Testing on such drug-treatments continues in order to determine potential long-term complications, and for a more detailed mechanism of how AR inhibitors prevent and reverse the galactosemic cataract.
A galactosemic cataract is cataract which is associated with the consequences of galactosemia.
The disease incidence varies widely depending on the geographical location. The most extensive epidemiological survey on this subject has been carried out by Dharmasena et al. who analysed the number of neonates who developed neonatal conjunctivitis in England from 2000 to 2011. In addition to the incidence of this sight threatening infection they also investigated the time trends of the disease. According to them the incidence of Neonatal conjunctivitis (Ophthalmia Neonatorum) in England was 257 (95% confidence interval: 245 to 269) per 100,000 in 2011.
Antibiotic ointment is typically applied to the newborn's eyes within 1 hour of birth as prevention against gonococcal ophthalmia. This maybe erythromycin, tetracycline, or silver nitrate.
Identification of microfilariae by microscopic examination is a practical diagnostic procedure. Examination of blood samples will allow identification of microfilariae of "Loa loa". It is important to time the blood collection with the known periodicity of the microfilariae (between 10 am and 2 pm). The blood sample can be a thick smear, stained with Giemsa or haematoxylin and eosin (see staining). For increased sensitivity, concentration techniques can be used. These include centrifugation of the blood sample lyzed in 2% formalin (Knott's technique), or filtration through a Nucleopore membrane.
Antigen detection using an immunoassay for circulating filarial antigens constitutes a useful diagnostic approach, because microfilaremia can be low and variable. Interestingly, the Institute for Tropical Medicine reports that no serologic diagnostics are available. While this was once true, and many of recently developed methods of Antibody detection are of limited value—because substantial antigenic cross reactivity exists between filaria and other parasitic worms (helminths), and a positive serologic test does not necessarily distinguish between infections—up and coming serologic tests that are highly specific to "Loa loa" were furthered in 2008. They have not gone point-of-care yet, but show promise for highlighting high-risk areas and individuals with co-endemic loiasis and onchocerciasis. Specifically, Dr. Thomas Nutman and colleagues at the National Institutes of Health have described the a luciferase immunoprecipitation assay (LIPS) and the related QLIPS (quick version). Whereas a previously described LISXP-1 ELISA test had a poor sensitivity (55%), the QLIPS test is both practical, as it requires only a 15 minutes incubation, and has high sensitivity and specificity (97% and 100%, respectively). No report on the distribution status of LIPS or QLIPS testing is available, but these tests would help to limit complications derived from mass ivermectin treatment for onchocerciasis or dangerous strong doses of diethylcarbamazine for loiasis alone (as pertains to individual with high "Loa loa" microfilarial loads).
Physically, Calabar swellings (see image; needs image) are the primary tool for diagnosis. Identification of adult worms is possible from tissue samples collected during subcutaneous biopsies. Adult worms migrating across the eye are another potential diagnostic, but the short timeframe for the worm's passage through the conjunctiva makes this observation less common.
In the past, health care providers use a provocative injection of "Dirofilaria immitis" as a skin test antigen for filariasis diagnosis. If the patient was infected, the extract would cause an artificial allergic reaction and associated Calabar swelling similar to that caused, in theory, by metabolic products of the worm or dead worms.
Blood tests to reveal microfilaremia are useful in many, but not all cases, as one third of loiasis patients are amicrofilaremic. By contrast, eosinophilia is almost guaranteed in cases of loiasis, and blood testing for eosinophil fraction may be useful.
A blood smear is a simple and fairly accurate diagnostic tool, provided the blood sample is taken during the period in the day when the juveniles are in the peripheral circulation. Technicians analyzing the blood smear must be able to distinguish between "W. bancrofti" and other parasites potentially present.
A polymerase chain reaction test can also be performed to detect a minute fraction, as little as 1 pg, of filarial DNA.
Some infected people do not have microfilariae in their blood. As a result, tests aimed to detect antigens from adult worms can be used.
Ultrasonography can also be used to detect the movements and noises caused by the movement of adult worms.
Dead, calcified worms can be detected by X-ray examinations.
The severity varies, but the most severe form results in an enlarged disc where vessels exit from the periphery instead of the center. Redundant fibroglial tissue also is seen in severe cases. Milder forms of dysplasia exhibit missing portions of the optic disc located in the optic nerve pit. The least severe form of papillorenal disease shown in the eye is the exiting of blood vessels from the periphery that do not disturb the shape of the eye. Other eye malformations include scleral staphyloma, which is the bulging of the eye wall. There can also be retinal thinning and myopia. Additionally, there can be an optic nerve cyst, which is dilation of the optic nerve posterior to the globe; which most likely results from incomplete regression of the primordial optic stalk and the filling of this area with fluid. Retinal coloboma is also common, which is characterized by the absence of retinal tissue in the nasal ventral portion of the retina. However, this is an extremely rare finding.
Papillorenal syndrome, also called renal-coloboma syndrome or isolated renal hypoplasia, is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder marked by underdevelopment (hypoplasia) of the kidney and colobomas of the optic nerve.
Diethylcarbamazine has been shown as an effective prophylaxis for "Loa loa" infection.
A study of Peace Corps volunteers in the highly Loa—endemic Gabon, for example, had the following results: 6 of 20 individuals in a placebo group contracted the disease, compared to 0 of 16 in the DEC-treated group. Seropositivity for antifilarial IgG antibody was also much higher in the placebo group. The recommended prophylactic dose is 300 mg DEC given orally once weekly. The only associated symptom in the Peace Corps study was nausea.
Researchers believe that geo-mapping of appropriate habitat and human settlement patterns may, with the use of predictor variables such as forest, land cover, rainfall, temperature, and soil type, allow for estimation of Loa loa transmission in the absence of point-of-care diagnostic tests. In addition to geo-mapping and chemoprophylaxis, the same preventative strategies used for malaria should be undertaken to avoid contraction of loiasis. Specifically, DEET-containing insect repellent, permethrin-soaked clothing, and thick, long-sleeved and long-legged clothing ought to be worn to decrease susceptibility to the bite of the mango or deer fly vector. Because the vector is day-biting, mosquito (bed) nets do not increase protection against loiasis.
Vector elimination strategies are an interesting consideration. It has been shown that the "Chrysops" vector has a limited flying range, but vector elimination efforts are not common, likely because the insects bite outdoors and have a diverse, if not long, range, living in the forest and biting in the open, as mentioned in the vector section.
No vaccine has been developed for loiasis and there is little report on this possibility.
Prevention focuses on protecting against mosquito bites in endemic regions. Insect repellents and mosquito nets are useful to protect against mosquito bites. Public education efforts must also be made within the endemic areas of the world to successfully lower the prevalence of "W. bancrofti" infections.
Prevalence measures include everyone living with HIV and AIDS, and present a delayed representation of the epidemic by aggregating the HIV infections of many years. Incidence, in contrast, measures the number of new infections, usually over the previous year. There is no practical, reliable way to assess incidence in Sub-Saharan Africa. Prevalence in 15- to 24-year-old pregnant women attending antenatal clinics is sometimes used as an approximation. The test done to measure prevalence is a serosurvey in which blood is tested for the presence of HIV.
Health units that conduct serosurveys rarely operate in remote rural communities, and the data collected also does not measure people who seek alternate healthcare. Extrapolating national data from antenatal surveys relies on assumptions which may not hold across all regions and at different stages in an epidemic.
Recent national population or household-based surveys collecting data from both sexes, pregnant and non-pregnant women, and rural and urban areas, have adjusted the recorded national prevalence levels for several countries in Africa and elsewhere. These, too, are not perfect: people may not participate in household surveys because they fear they may be HIV positive and do not want to know their test results. Household surveys also exclude migrant labourers, who are a high risk group.
Thus, there may be significant disparities between official figures and actual HIV prevalence in some countries.
A minority of scientists claim that as many as 40 percent of HIV infections in African adults may be caused by unsafe medical practices rather than by sexual activity. The World Health Organization states that about 2.5 percent of HIV infections in Sub-Saharan Africa are caused by unsafe medical injection practices and the "overwhelming majority" by unprotected sex.
The diagnosis of Buruli ulcer is usually based on the characteristic appearance of the ulcer in an endemic area. If there is any doubt about the diagnosis, then PCR using the IS2404 target is helpful, but this is not specific for "M. ulcerans". The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is only 40–80% sensitive, and culture is 20–60% sensitive. Simultaneous use of multiple methods may be necessary to make the diagnosis.
Presumptive diagnosis is made by characteristic clinical signs, post mortem lesions, and presence of competent vectors. Laboratory confirmation is by viral isolation, with such techniques as quantitative PCR for detecting viral RNA, antigen capture (ELISA), and immunofluorescence of infected tissues. Serological tests are only useful for detecting recovered animals, as sick animals die before they are able to mount effective immune responses.
The prognosis for Tropical spastic paraparesis indicates some improvement in a percentage of cases due to immunosuppressive treatment. A higher percentage will eventually lose the ability to walk within a ten-year interval.
Many people living with HIV in low and middle income countries who need antiretroviral therapy are unable to access or remain in care. This is often because of the time and cost required to travel to health centres as well as an inadequate number of trained staff such as medical doctors and specialists to provide treatment. One approach to improve access to HIV care is to provide antiretroviral therapy close to people’s homes. A systematic review found that when antiretroviral treatment was initiated at the hospital but followed up at a health centre closer to home, fewer patients died or were lost to follow up. The research also did not detect a difference in the numbers of patients who died or were lost to follow up when they received maintenance treatment in the community rather than in a health centre or hospital.
Among the methods of diagnosing tropical spastic paraparesis are MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) and lumbar puncture (which may show lymphocytosis).
Melanism is a development of the dark-colored pigment melanin in the skin or its appendages and is the opposite of albinism. The word "melanism" is derived from the ("black pigment").
Pseudo-melanism, also called abundism, is another variant of pigmentation, characterized by dark spots or enlarged stripes, which cover a large part of the body of the animal, making it appear melanistic.
A deficiency in or total absence of melanin pigments is called amelanism.
The morbid deposition of black matter, often of a malignant character causing pigmented tumors, is called melanosis. For a description of melanin-related disorders, see melanin and ocular melanosis.
There is no specific vaccine for "Myocobacterium ulcerans". The Bacillus Calmette-Guérin vaccine may offer temporary protection.
There is currently no treatment for AHS.
Control of an outbreak in an endemic region involves quarantine, vector control and vaccination. To prevent this disease, the affected horses are usually slaughtered, and the uninfected horses are vaccinated against the virus. Three vaccines currently exist, which include a polyvalent vaccine, a monovalent vaccine, and a monovalent inactivated vaccine. This disease can also be prevented by destroying the insect vector habitats using insecticides.