Blood is generally drawn from the father to help determine fetal antigen status. If he is homozygous for the antigen, there is a 100% chance of all offspring in the pairing to be positive for the antigen and at risk for HDN. If he is heterozygous, there is a 50% chance of offspring to be positive for the antigen. This test can help with knowledge for the current baby, as well as aid in the decision about future pregnancies. With RhD, the test is called the RhD genotype. With RhCE, and Kell antigen it is called an antigen phenotype.

In some cases, the direct coombs will be negative but severe, even fatal HDN can occur. An indirect coombs needs to be run in cases of anti-C, anti-c, and anti-M. Anti-M also recommends antigen testing to rule out the presence of HDN.

- Hgb - the infant’s hemoglobin should be tested from cord blood.

- Reticulocyte count - Reticulocytes are elevated when the infant is producing more blood to combat anemia. A rise in the retic count can mean that an infant may not need additional transfusions. Low retic is observed in infants treated with IUT and in those with HDN from anti-Kell

- Neutrophils - as Neutropenia is one of the complications of HDN, the neutrophil count should be checked.

- Thrombocytes - as thrombocytopenia is one of the complications of HDN, the thrombocyte count should be checked.

- Bilirubin should be tested from cord blood.

- Ferritin - because most infants affected by HDN have iron overload, a ferritin must be run before giving the infant any additional iron.

- Newborn Screening Tests - Transfusion with donor blood during pregnancy or shortly after birth can affect the results of the Newborn Screening Tests. It is recommended to wait and retest 10–12 months after last transfusion. In some cases, DNA testing from saliva can be used to rule out certain conditions.

Most Rh disease can be prevented by treating the mother during pregnancy or promptly (within 72 hours) after childbirth. The mother has an intramuscular injection of anti-Rh antibodies (Rho(D) immune globulin). This is done so that the fetal rhesus D positive erythrocytes are destroyed before the immune system of the mother can discover them and become sensitized. This is passive immunity and the effect of the immunity will wear off after about 4 to 6 weeks (or longer depending on injected dose) as the anti-Rh antibodies gradually decline to zero in the maternal blood.

It is part of modern antenatal care to give all rhesus D negative pregnant women an anti-RhD IgG immunoglobulin injection at about 28 weeks gestation (with or without a booster at 34 weeks gestation). This reduces the effect of the vast majority of sensitizing events which mostly occur after 28 weeks gestation. Giving Anti-D to all Rhesus negative pregnant women can mean giving it to mothers who do not need it (because her baby is Rhesus negative or their blood did not mix). Many countries routinely give Anti-D to Rhesus D negative women in pregnancy. In other countries, stocks of Anti-D can run short or even run out. Before Anti-D is made routine in these countries, stocks should be readily available so that it is available for women who need Anti-D in an emergency situation.

A recent review found research into giving Anti-D to all Rhesus D negative pregnant women is of low quality. However the research did suggest that the risk of the mother producing antibodies to attack Rhesus D positive fetal cells was lower in mothers who had the Anti-D in pregnancy. There were also fewer mothers with a positive kleihauer test (which shows if the mother’s and unborn baby’s blood has mixed).

Anti-RhD immunoglobulin is also given to non-sensitized rhesus negative women immediately (within 72 hours—the sooner the better) after potentially sensitizing events that occur earlier in pregnancy.

The discovery of cell-free DNA in the maternal plasma has allowed for the non-invasive determination of the fetal RHD genotype. In May 2017, the Society for Obstetrics and Gynecology of Canada is now recommending that the optimal management of the D-negative pregnant woman is based on the prediction of the fetal D-blood group by cell-free DNA in maternal plasma with targeted antenatal anti-D prophylaxis. This provides the optimal care for D-negative pregnant women and has been adopted as the standard approach in a growing number of countries around the world. It is no longer considered appropriate to treat all D-negative pregnant women with human plasma derivatives when there are no benefits to her or to the fetus in a substantial percentage of cases.

The diagnosis of HDN is based on history and laboratory findings:

"Blood tests done on the newborn baby"

- Biochemistry tests for jaundice

- Peripheral blood morphology shows increased reticulocytes. Erythroblasts (also known as nucleated red blood cells) occur in moderate and severe disease.

- Positive direct Coombs test (might be negative after fetal interuterine blood transfusion)

"Blood tests done on the mother"

- Positive indirect Coombs test

In some cases, the direct coombs will be negative but severe, even fatal HDN can occur. An indirect coombs needs to be run in cases of anti-C, anti-c, and anti-M. Anti-M also recommends antigen testing to rule out the presence of HDN.

Neonatal hypoglycemia is a transient or temporary condition of decreased blood sugar or hypoglycemia in a neonate.

The only effective way at preventing kernicterus is to lower the serum bilirubin levels either by phototherapy or exchange transfusion. Visual inspection is never sufficient; therefore, it is best to use a bilimeter or blood test to determine a baby's risk for developing kernicterus. These numbers can then be plotted on the Bhutani nomogram.

Gilbert's syndrome and G6PD deficiency occurring together especially increases the risk for kernicterus.

Those infants that have an increased risk of developing hypoglycemia shortly after birth are:

- preterm

- asphyxia

- cold stress

- congestive heart failure

- sepsis

- Rh disease

- discordant twin

- erythroblastosis fetalis

- polycythemia

- microphallus or midline defect

- respiratory disease

- maternal glucose IV

- maternal epidural

- postmaturity

- hyperinssulinnemia

- endocrine disorders

- inborn errors of metabolism

- diabetic mother

- maternal toxemia

- intrapartum fever

Previa can be confirmed with an ultrasound. Transvaginal ultrasound has superior accuracy as compared to transabdominal one, thus allowing measurement of distance between placenta and cervical os. This has rendered traditional classification of placenta previa obsolete.

False positives may be due to following reasons:

- Overfilled bladder compressing lower uterine segment

- Myometrial contraction simulating placental tissue in abnormally low location

- Early pregnancy low position, which in third trimester may be entirely normal due to differential growth of the uterus.

In such cases, repeat scanning is done after an interval of 15–30 minutes.

In parts of the world where ultrasound is unavailable, it is not uncommon to confirm the diagnosis with an examination in the surgical theatre. The proper timing of an examination in theatre is important. If the woman is not bleeding severely she can be managed non-operatively until the 36th week. By this time the baby's chance of survival is as good as at full term.

An initial assessment to determine the status of the mother and fetus is required. Although mothers used to be treated in the hospital from the first bleeding episode until birth, it is now considered safe to treat placenta previa on an outpatient basis if the fetus is at less than 30 weeks of gestation, and neither the mother nor the fetus are in distress. Immediate delivery of the fetus may be indicated if the fetus is mature or if the fetus or mother are in distress. Blood volume replacement (to maintain blood pressure) and blood plasma replacement (to maintain fibrinogen levels) may be necessary.

Corticosteroids are indicated at 24–34 weeks gestation, given the higher risk of premature birth.

Various techniques may be used for the direct identification of "B. anthracis" in clinical material. Firstly, specimens may be Gram stained. "Bacillus" spp. are quite large in size (3 to 4 μm long), they may grow in long chains, and they stain Gram-positive. To confirm the organism is "B. anthracis", rapid diagnostic techniques such as polymerase chain reaction-based assays and immunofluorescence microscopy may be used.

All "Bacillus" species grow well on 5% sheep blood agar and other routine culture media. Polymyxin-lysozyme-EDTA-thallous acetate can be used to isolate "B. anthracis" from contaminated specimens, and bicarbonate agar is used as an identification method to induce capsule formation. "Bacillus" spp. usually grow within 24 hours of incubation at 35°C, in ambient air (room temperature) or in 5% CO. If bicarbonate agar is used for identification, then the medium must be incubated in 5% CO. "B. anthracis" colonies are medium-large, gray, flat, and irregular with swirling projections, often referred to as having a "medusa head" appearance, and are not hemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar. The bacteria are not motile, susceptible to penicillin, and produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar. Confirmatory testing to identify "B. anthracis" includes gamma bacteriophage testing, indirect hemagglutination, and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay to detect antibodies. The best confirmatory precipitation test for anthrax is the Ascoli test.

Eosinophilic folliculitis may be suspected clinically when an individual with HIV exhibits the classic symptoms. The diagnosis can be supported by the finding of eosinophilia but a skin biopsy is necessary to establish it. Skin biopsies reveal lymphocytic and eosinophilic inflammation around the hair follicles.

The following screening tool may be useful to patients and medical professionals in determining the need to take further action to diagnose symptoms:

If a person is suspected as having died from anthrax, precautions should be taken to avoid skin contact with the potentially contaminated body and fluids exuded through natural body openings. The body should be put in strict quarantine. A blood sample should then be collected and sealed in a container and analyzed in an approved laboratory to ascertain if anthrax is the cause of death. Then, the body should be incinerated. Microscopic visualization of the encapsulated bacilli, usually in very large numbers, in a blood smear stained with polychrome methylene blue (McFadyean stain) is fully diagnostic, though culture of the organism is still the gold standard for diagnosis. Full isolation of the body is important to prevent possible contamination of others. Protective, impermeable clothing and equipment such as rubber gloves, rubber apron, and rubber boots with no perforations should be used when handling the body. No skin, especially if it has any wounds or scratches, should be exposed. Disposable personal protective equipment is preferable, but if not available, decontamination can be achieved by autoclaving. Disposable personal protective equipment and filters should be autoclaved, and/or burned and buried. Anyone working with anthrax in a suspected or confirmed person should wear respiratory equipment capable of filtering particles of their size or smaller. The US National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health – and Mine Safety and Health Administration-approved high-efficiency respirator, such as a half-face disposable respirator with a high-efficiency particulate air filter, is recommended. All possibly contaminated bedding or clothing should be isolated in double plastic bags and treated as possible biohazard waste. The body of an infected person should be sealed in an airtight body bag. Dead people who are opened and not burned provide an ideal source of anthrax spores. Cremating people is the preferred way of handling body disposal. No embalming or autopsy should be attempted without a fully equipped biohazard laboratory and trained, knowledgeable personnel.

The current clinical case definition of diphtheria used by the United States' Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is based on both laboratory and clinical criteria.

Treatment of eosinophilic folliculitis in people with HIV typically begins with the initiation of Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy in order to help reconstitute the immune system. Direct treatment of the EF itself focuses on decreasing the inflammation and itching. Topical corticosteroids and oral antihistamines can alleviate the itching and decrease the size and number of lesions. Treatment with the antifungal drug itraconazole, the antibiotic metronidazole, and the anti-mite drug permethrin may lead to some improvement of symptoms. Other therapies include PUVA, topical tacrolimus, and isotretinoin.

Empirical treatment should generally be started in a patient in whom suspicion of diphtheria is high.

An oncovirus is a virus that can cause cancer. This term originated from studies of acutely transforming retroviruses in the 1950–60s, often called oncornaviruses to denote their RNA virus origin.

It now refers to any virus with a DNA or RNA genome causing cancer and is synonymous with "tumor virus" or "cancer virus". The vast majority of human and animal viruses do not cause cancer, probably because of longstanding co-evolution between the virus and its host. Oncoviruses have been important not only in epidemiology, but also in investigations of cell cycle control mechanisms such as the Retinoblastoma protein.

The World Health Organization's International Agency for Research on Cancer estimated that in 2002, infection caused 17.8% of human cancers, with 11.9% caused by one of seven viruses. These cancers might be easily prevented through vaccination (e.g., papillomavirus vaccines), diagnosed with simple blood tests, and treated with less-toxic antiviral compounds.

Early detection and treatment are associated with higher rates of recovery and decreased morbidity and mortality.

Treatment for PPCM is similar to treatment for congestive heart failure. Conventional heart failure treatment includes the use of diuretics, beta blockers (B-B), and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE-I) after delivery. Diuretics, preferably furosemide, help the body to get rid of excess water weight and also lower blood pressure. ACE-I and B-B improve blood circulation and contribute to the reversal of the immune system dysfunction associated with PPCM. If ACE-I is not well tolerated by the patient, it can be replaced by angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB). Hydralazine with nitrates may replace ACE-I in breastfeeding mothers or before delivery; however, evidence suggests that this course of treatment may not be as effective as ACE-I but beneficial when necessary.

If EF is less than 35%, anticoagulation is indicated, as there is a greater risk of developing left ventricular thrombi (blood clots). Sometimes implantation of a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) or even heart transplant also becomes necessary.

It is important that the patient receives regular follow-up care including frequent echocardiograms to monitor improvement or the lack thereof, particularly after changes of medical treatment regimes.

Patients who do not respond to initial treatment, defined as left ventricular EF remaining below 20% at two months or below 40% at three months with conventional treatment may merit further investigation, including cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), cardiac catheterization, and endomyocardial biopsy for special staining and for viral polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis. Antiviral therapy, immunoabsorption, intravenous gamma globulin, or other immunomodulation therapy may then be considered accordingly, but following a controlled research-type protocol.

Since no one knows for sure exactly when to discontinue treatment, even when recovery occurs quickly, it is still recommended that both ACE-I and B-B be continued for at least one year after diagnosis.

Chest X-rays are frequently used to aid in the diagnosis of CHF. In a person who is compensated, this may show cardiomegaly (visible enlargement of the heart), quantified as the cardiothoracic ratio (proportion of the heart size to the chest). In left ventricular failure, there may be evidence of vascular redistribution ("upper lobe blood diversion" or "cephalization"), Kerley lines, cuffing of the areas around the bronchi, and interstitial edema. Ultrasound of the lung may also be able to detect Kerley lines.

Blood tests routinely performed include electrolytes (sodium, potassium), measures of kidney function, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, a complete blood count, and often C-reactive protein if infection is suspected. An elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a specific test indicative of heart failure. Additionally, BNP can be used to differentiate between causes of dyspnea due to heart failure from other causes of dyspnea. If myocardial infarction is suspected, various cardiac markers may be used.

According to a meta-analysis comparing BNP and N-terminal pro-BNP (NTproBNP) in the diagnosis of heart failure, BNP is a better indicator for heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction. In groups of symptomatic patients, a diagnostic odds ratio of 27 for BNP compares with a sensitivity of 85% and specificity of 84% in detecting heart failure.

Diagnosis is typically made based on patient history. The physical examination should be normal. The primary diagnosis for JME is a good knowledge of patient history and the neurologist's familiarity with the myoclonic jerks, which are the hallmark of the syndrome. Additionally, an electroencephalogram (EEG), will indicate a pattern of waves and spikes associated with the syndrome. The EEG generally shows a very characteristic pattern with generalized 4–6 Hz polyspike and slow wave discharges. These discharges are often provoked by photic stimulation (blinking lights) and sometimes hyperventilation. Both a magnetic resonance imaging scan (MRI) and computed tomography scan (CT scan) should appear normal in JME patients.

Generally, tumor viruses cause little or no disease after infection in their hosts, or cause non-neoplastic diseases such as acute hepatitis for hepatitis B virus or mononucleosis for Epstein-Barr virus. A minority of persons (or animals) will go on to develop cancers after infection. This has complicated efforts to determine whether or not a given virus causes cancer. The well-known Koch's postulates, 19th-century constructs developed by Robert Koch to establish the likelihood that "Bacillus anthracis" will cause anthrax disease, are not applicable to viral diseases. (Firstly, this is because viruses cannot truly be isolated in pure culture—even stringent isolation techniques cannot exclude undetected contaminating viruses with similar density characteristics, and viruses must be grown on cells. Secondly, asymptomatic virus infection and carriage is the norm for most tumor viruses, which violates Koch's third principle. Relman and Fredericks have described the difficulties in applying Koch's postulates to virus-induced cancers. Finally, the host restriction for human viruses makes it unethical to experimentally transmit a suspected cancer virus.) Other measures, such as A.B. Hill's criteria, are more relevant to cancer virology but also have some limitations in determining causality.

Tumor viruses come in a variety of forms: Viruses with a DNA genome, such as adenovirus, and viruses with an RNA genome, like the Hepatitis C virus (HCV), can cause cancers, as can retroviruses having both DNA and RNA genomes (Human T-lymphotropic virus and hepatitis B virus, which normally replicates as a mixed double and single-stranded DNA virus but also has a retroviral replication component). In many cases, tumor viruses do not cause cancer in their native hosts but only in dead-end species. For example, adenoviruses do not cause cancer in humans but are instead responsible for colds, conjunctivitis and other acute illnesses. They only become tumorigenic when infected into certain rodent species, such as Syrian hamsters. Some viruses are tumorigenic when they infect a cell and persist as circular episomes or plasmids, replicating separately from host cell DNA (Epstein-Barr virus and Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus). Other viruses are only carcinogenic when they integrate into the host cell genome as part of a biological accident, such as polyomaviruses and papillomaviruses.

A direct oncogenic viral mechanism involves either insertion of additional viral oncogenic genes into the host cell or to enhance already existing oncogenic genes (proto-oncogenes) in the genome. Indirect viral oncogenicity involves chronic nonspecific inflammation occurring over decades of infection, as is the case for HCV-induced liver cancer. These two mechanisms differ in their biology and epidemiology: direct tumor viruses must have at least one virus copy in every tumor cell expressing at least one protein or RNA that is causing the cell to become cancerous. Because foreign virus antigens are expressed in these tumors, persons who are immunosuppressed such as AIDS or transplant patients are at higher risk for these types of cancers. Chronic indirect tumor viruses, on the other hand, can be lost (at least theoretically) from a mature tumor that has accumulated sufficient mutations and growth conditions (hyperplasia) from the chronic inflammation of viral infection. In this latter case, it is controversial but at least theoretically possible that an indirect tumor virus could undergo "hit-and-run" and so the virus would be lost from the clinically diagnosed tumor. In practical terms, this is an uncommon occurrence if it does occur.

The most effective anti-epileptic medication for JME is valproic acid (Depakote). Women are often started on alternative medications due to valproic acid's high incidence of fetal malformations. Lamotrigine, levetiracetam, topiramate, and zonisamide are alternative anti-epileptic medications with less frequent incidence of pregnancy related complications, and they are often used first in females of childbearing age. Carbamazepine may aggravate primary generalized seizure disorders such as JME. Treatment is lifelong. Patients should be warned to avoid sleep deprivation.

Discoloration of the front teeth is one of the most common reasons people seek dental care. However, many people with teeth of normal shade ask for them to be whitened. Management of tooth discoloration depends on the cause. Most discoloration is harmless and may or may not be of cosmetic concern to the individual. In other cases it may indicate underlying pathology such as pulp necrosis or rarely a systemic disorder.

Most extrinsic discoloration is readily removed by cleaning the teeth, whether with "whitening" (i.e., abrasive) toothpaste at home, or as treatment carried out by a professional (e.g., scaling and/or polishing). To prevent future buildup of extrinsic stains, identification of the cause (e.g., smoking) is required.

Intrinsic discoloration generally requires one of the many types of tooth bleaching. Alternatively the appearance of the tooth can be hidden with dental restorations (e.g., composite fillings, veneers, crowns).