There is no simple and reliable way to test for ovarian cancer in women who do not have any signs or symptoms. The Pap test does not screen for ovarian cancer.

Screening is not recommended in women who are at average risk, as evidence does not support a reduction in death and the high rate of false positive tests may lead to unneeded surgery, which is accompanied by its own risks.

Ovarian cancer is usually only palpable in advanced stages. Screening is not recommended using CA-125 measurements, HE4 levels, ultrasound, or adnexal palpation in women who are at average risk. Risk of developing ovarian cancer in those with genetic factors can be reduced. Those with a genetic predisposition may benefit from screening. This high risk group has benefited with earlier detection.

Ovarian cancer has low prevalence, even in the high-risk group of women from the ages of 50 to 60 (about one in 2000), and screening of women with average risk is more likely to give ambiguous results than detect a problem which requires treatment. Because ambiguous results are more likely than detection of a treatable problem, and because the usual response to ambiguous results is invasive interventions, in women of average risk, the potential harms of having screening without an indication outweigh the potential benefits. The purpose of screening is to diagnose ovarian cancer at an early stage, when it is more likely to be treated successfully.

Screening with transvaginal ultrasound, pelvic examination, and CA-125 levels can be used instead of preventative surgery in women who have BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations. This strategy has shown some success.

People with strong genetic risk for ovarian cancer may consider the surgical removal of their ovaries as a preventative measure. This is often done after completion of childbearing years. This reduces the chances of developing both breast cancer (by around 50%) and ovarian cancer (by about 96%) in people at high risk. Women with "BRCA" gene mutations usually also have their Fallopian tubes removed at the same time (salpingo-oophorectomy), since they also have an increased risk of Fallopian tube cancer. However, these statistics may overestimate the risk reduction because of how they have been studied.

People with a significant family history for ovarian cancer are often referred to a genetic counselor to see if they if testing for BRCA mutations would be beneficial. The use of oral contraceptives, the absence of 'periods' during the menstrual cycle, and tubal ligation reduce the risk.

There may an association of developing ovarian cancer and ovarian stimulation during infertility treatments. Endometriosis has been linked to ovarian cancers. Human papillomavirus infection, smoking, and talc have not been identified as increasing the risk for developing ovarian cancer.

The 1997 International Germ Cell Consensus Classification is a tool for estimating the risk of relapse after treatment of malignant germ cell tumor.

A small study of ovarian tumors in girls reports a correlation between cystic and benign tumors and, conversely, solid and malignant tumors. Because the cystic extent of a tumor can be estimated by ultrasound, MRI, or CT scan before surgery, this permits selection of the most appropriate surgical plan to minimize risk of spillage of a malignant tumor.

Access to appropriate treatment has a large effect on outcome. A 1993 study of outcomes in Scotland found that for 454 men with non-seminomatous (non-germinomatous) germ cell tumors diagnosed between 1975 and 1989, 5-year survival increased over time and with earlier diagnosis. Adjusting for these and other factors, survival was 60% higher for men treated in a cancer unit that treated the majority of these men, even though the unit treated more men with the worst prognosis.

Choriocarcinoma of the testicles has the worst prognosis of all germ cell cancers

For surface epithelial-stromal tumors, the most common sites of metastasis are the pleural cavity (33%), the liver (26%), and the lungs (3%).

Presence of an ovarian tumour plus hormonal disturbances suggests a Sertoli–Leydig cell tumour. However, hormonal disturbance is present in only 2/3 of cases. A conclusive diagnosis is made via histology, as part of a pathology report made during or after surgery. See also Sex cord-stromal tumour.

Blood tests may detect the presence of placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP) in fifty percent of cases. However, PLAP cannot usefully stand alone as a marker for seminoma and contributes little to follow-up, due to its rise with smoking. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) may be elevated in some cases, but this correlates more to the presence of trophoblast cells within the tumour than to the stage of the tumour. A classical or pure seminoma by definition do not cause an elevated serum alpha fetoprotein . Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) may be the only marker that is elevated in some seminomas. The degree of elevation in the serum LDH has prognostic value in advanced seminoma.

The cut surface of the tumour is fleshy and lobulated, and varies in colour from cream to tan to pink. The tumour tends to bulge from the cut surface, and small areas of hemorrhage may be seen. These areas of hemorrhage usually correspond to trophoblastic cell clusters within the tumour.

Microscopic examination shows that seminomas are usually composed of either a sheet-like or lobular pattern of cells with a fibrous stromal network. The fibrous septa almost always contain focal lymphocyte inclusions, and granulomas are sometimes seen. The tumour cells themselves typically have abundant clear to pale pink cytoplasm containing abundant glycogen, which is demonstrable with a periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain. The nuclei are prominent and usually contain one or two large nucleoli, and have prominent nuclear membranes. Foci of syncytiotrophoblastic cells may be present in varied amounts. The adjacent testicular tissue commonly shows intratubular germ cell neoplasia, and may also show variable spermatocytic maturation arrest.

POU2AF1 and PROM1 have been proposed as possible markers.

Uterine adenosarcomas are typically treated with a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingoophorectomy (TAH-BSO). Ovary sparing surgery may be done in women wishing to preserve fertility.

Fertility subsequent to treatment of surface epithelial-stromal tumors depends mainly on histology and initial

staging to separate it into early borderline (or more benign) versus advanced stages of borderline (or more malignant). Conservative management (without bilateral oophorectomy) of early stage borderline tumors have been estimated to result in chance of over 50% of spontaneous pregnancy with a low risk of lethal recurrence of the tumor (0.5%). On the other hand, in cases of conservative treatment in advanced stage borderline tumors, spontaneous pregnancy rates have been estimated to be 35% and the risk of lethal recurrence 2%.

A pelvic examination may detect an adnexal mass. A CA-125 blood test is a nonspecific test that tends to be elevated in patients with tubal cancer. More specific tests are a gynecologic ultrasound examination, a CT scan, or an MRI of the pelvis.

Occasionally, an early fallopian tube cancer may be detected serendipitously during pelvic surgery.

Women with benign germ cell tumors such as mature teratomas (dermoid cysts) are cured by ovarian cystectomy or oophorectomy. In general, all patients with malignant germ cell tumors will have the same staging surgery that is done for epithelial ovarian cancer. If the patient is in her reproductive years, an alternative is unilateral salpingoophorectomy, while the uterus, the ovary, and the fallopian tube on the opposite side can be left behind. This isn't an option when the cancer is in both ovaries. If the patient has finished having children, the surgery involves complete staging including salpingoophorectomy on both sides as well as hysterectomy.

Most patients with germ cell cancer will need to be treated with combination chemotherapy for at least 3 cycles. The chemotherapy regimen most commonly used in germ cell tumors is called PEB (or BEP), and consists of bleomycin, etoposide, a platinum-based antineoplastic (cisplatin).

The prognosis is determined primarily by the cancer stage. Most tumours are discovered at an early stage and have a good prognosis, especially when compared to uterine carcinosarcoma. Five year survival for stage I and stage III tumours is approximately 80% and 50% respectively.

The usual treatment is surgery. The surgery usually is a fertility-sparing unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. For malignant tumours, the surgery may be radical and usually is followed by adjuvant chemotherapy, sometimes by radiation therapy. In all cases, initial treatment is followed by surveillance. Because in many cases Sertoli–Leydig cell tumour does not produce elevated tumour markers, the focus of surveillance is on repeated physical examination and imaging. Given that many cases of Sertoli–Leydig cell tumor of the ovary are hereditary, referral to a clinical genetics service should be considered.

The prognosis is generally good as the tumour tends to grow slowly and usually is benign: 25% are malignant. For malignant tumours with undifferentiated histology, prognosis is poor.

Spermatocytic seminomas are not considered a subtype of seminoma and unlike other germ cell tumours do not arise from intratubular germ cell neoplasia.

A widely recognised method of estimating the risk of malignant ovarian cancer based on initial workup is the "risk of malignancy index" (RMI). It is recommended that women with an RMI score over 200 should be referred to a centre with experience in ovarian cancer surgery.

The RMI is calculated as follows:

There are two methods to determine the ultrasound score and menopausal score, with the resultant RMI being called RMI 1 and RMI 2, respectively, depending on what method is used:

An RMI 2 of over 200 has been estimated to have a sensitivity of 74 to 80%, a specificity of 89 to 92% and a positive predictive value of around 80% of ovarian cancer. RMI 2 is regarded as more sensitive than RMI 1.

Follow-up imaging in women of reproductive age for incidentally discovered simple cysts on ultrasound is not needed until 5 cm, as these are usually normal ovarian follicles. Simple cysts 5 to 7 cm in premenopausal females should be followed yearly. Simple cysts larger than 7 cm require further imaging with MRI or surgical assessment. Because they are large, they cannot be reliably assessed by ultrasound alone because it may be difficult to see the soft tissue nodularity or thickened septation at their posterior wall due to limited penetrance of the ultrasound beam. For the corpus luteum, a dominant ovulating follicle that typically appears as a cyst with circumferentially thickened walls and crenulated inner margins, follow up is not needed if the cyst is less than 3 cm in diameter. In postmenopausal patients, any simple cyst greater than 1 cm but less than 7 cm needs yearly follow-up, while those greater than 7 cm need MRI or surgical evaluation, similar to reproductive age females.

For incidentally discovered dermoids, diagnosed on ultrasound by their pathognomonic echogenic fat, either surgical removal or yearly follow up is indicated, regardless of patient age. For peritoneal inclusion cysts, which have a crumpled tissue-paper appearance and tend to follow the contour of adjacent organs, follow up is based on clinical history. Hydrosalpinx, or fallopian tube dilation, can be mistaken for an ovarian cyst due to its anechoic appearance. Follow-up for this is also based on clinical presentation.

For multiloculate cysts with thin septation less than 3 mm, surgical evaluation is recommended. The presence of multiloculation suggests a neoplasm, although the thin septation implies that the neoplasm is benign. For any thickened septation, nodularity, or vascular flow on color doppler assessment, surgical removal should be considered due to concern for malignancy.

Prognosis depends to a large degree on the stage of the condition. In 1991 it was reported that about half of the patients with advanced stage disease survived 5 years with a surgical approach followed by cisplatinum-based chemotherapy.

Since gestational choriocarcinoma (which arises from a hydatidiform mole) contains paternal DNA (and thus paternal antigens), it is exquisitely sensitive to chemotherapy. The cure rate, even for metastatic gestational choriocarcinoma, is around 90–95%.

At present, treatment with single-agent methotrexate is recommended for low-risk disease, while intense combination regimens including EMACO (etoposide, methotrexate, actinomycin D, cyclosphosphamide and vincristine (Oncovin) are recommended for intermediate or high-risk disease.

Hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus) can also be offered to patients > 40 years of age or those for whom sterilisation is not an obstacle. It may be required for those with severe infection and uncontrolled bleeding.

Choriocarcinoma arising in the testicle is rare, malignant and highly resistant to chemotherapy. The same is true of choriocarcinoma arising in the ovary. Testicular choriocarcinoma has the worst prognosis of all germ-cell cancers.

Gonadoblastomas can contain elements of both germ cells and gonadal stroma.

Formerly, gonadoblastoma was sometimes regarded as a subset of dysgerminoma. In modern literature, it is sometimes considered to progress to dysgerminoma.

Surgical exploration and of possible ovarian tissue is required for the definitive diagnosis of ORS, and treatment by excision of the remnant ovarian tissue may be performed during the same procedure. For women who are not candidates for surgery, a clinical diagnosis can be made based on the symptoms and levels (follicle-stimulating hormone and estradiol, after bilateral oophorectomy) and/or findings consistent with the presence of residual ovarian tissue. Laparoscopy and histological assessment can aid in diagnosis.

Standard treatment would include surgical exploration via laparotomy. Laparoscopy may be an option if the surgeon is particularly skilled in removing ovarian neoplasms via laparoscopy intact. If the diagnosis of gonadoblastoma is certain, a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (BSO) should be performed to remove both the primary tumor and the dysgenic contralateral ovary. If uninvolved, the uterus should be left intact. Modern reproductive endocrinology technology allows patients post BSO to achieve pregnancy via in-vitro fertilization (IVF) with a donor egg.

The risk of ovarian remnant (ORS) is increased by incomplete removal of the ovarian at the time of oophorectomy. Surgical factors that contribute to incomplete removal include those that limit surgical exposure of the ovary, or compromise surgical technique. Factors may include:

- adhesions – these can limit visualization of the ovary and may also cause it to adhere to surrounding tissues. Adhesions are often present due to preexisting conditions and/or prior surgeries. In the majority of cases reported since 2007, endometriosis was the most common indication for the initial oophorectomy in patients who subsequently had ORS. Endometriosis increases the risk for functional ovarian tissue being embedded into adjacent structures, making complete excision of tissue challenging.

- Anatomic variations - unusual location of ovarian tissue, for example

- Intraoperative bleeding

- Poor surgical technique – this may include failure to obtain adequate exposure or restore adequate anatomy, or imprecise choice of incision site

Ovarian remnant (ORS) may first be considered in women who have undergone oophorectomy and have suggestive symptoms, the presence of a mass, or evidence of persistent ovarian function (by symptoms or laboratory testing). A history of oophorectomy is required, by definition, to make the diagnosis. Notes regarding the indication for the procedure and the procedure itself should be reviewed and may include prior abdominal or pelvic surgery, endometriosis, and/or poor surgical visualization. If ORS is possible, pelvic should be performed to evaluate for a pelvic mass.[1]

Ovarian torsion is difficult to diagnose accurately, and operation is often performed before certain diagnosis is made. A study at an obstetrics and gynaecology department found that preoperative diagnosis of ovarian torsion was confirmed in only 46% of people.

Gynecologic ultrasonography is the imaging modality of choice. Use of doppler ultrasound in the diagnosis has been suggested. However, doppler flow is not always absent in torsion – the definitive diagnosis is often made in the operating room.

Lack of ovarian blood flow on doppler sonography seems to be a good predictor of ovarian torsion. Women with pathologically low flow are more likely to have OT (77% vs. 29% in a study). The sensitivity and specificity of abnormal ovarian flow for OT are 44% and 92%, respectively, with a positive and negative predictive value of 78% and 71%, respectively. Specific flow features on Doppler sonography include:

- Little or no intra-ovarian venous flow. This is commonly seen in ovarian torsion.

- Absent arterial flow. This is a less common finding in ovarian torsion

- Absent or reversed diastolic flow

Normal vascularity does not exclude intermittent torsion. There may occasionally be normal Doppler flow because of the ovary's dual blood supply from both the ovarian arteries and uterine arteries.

Other ultrasonographic features include:

- Enlarged hypoechogenic or hyperechogenic ovary

- Peripherally displaced ovarian follicles

- Free pelvic fluid. This may be seen in more than 80% of cases

- "Whirlpool sign" of twisted vascular pedicle

- Underlying ovarian lesion can often be found

- Uterus may be slightly deviated towards the torted ovary.

Luteomas are not often detected before delivery. Most luteomas are found during surgery if a caesarean section is performed or when some other surgery is performed. Pre-delivery detection is not effective for many reasons. Some tests, that can be performed pre-delivery, measure the amount of testosterone in the blood; however, this is not a very useful detection method since normal pregnancies have increased amounts of testosterone. Another method that would be useful to determine if a fetus is being exposed to testosterone is to test the placenta and umbilical cord for testosterone. The placenta has a mechanism for converting hormones from the mother into hormones that the fetus needs. If the amount of testosterone in the umbilical cord is higher than normal, the gene type of the fetus should be determined to see if the fetus is male or female. If the fetus is female then the high levels of testosterone in the umbilical cord could be an indicator that a luteoma is present. Unfortunately, this procedure can't be safely performed until after the fetus has undergone differentiation (when the sex of the fetus becomes apparent). But by this time the damage has already been done.

Inhibin, a hormone, has been used as tumor marker for granulosa cell tumor.