A definitive diagnosis is made by culturing the organism from any clinical sample, because the organism is never part of the normal human flora.

A definite history of contact with soil may not be elicited, as melioidosis can be dormant for many years before manifesting. Attention should be paid to a history of travel to endemic areas in returned travellers. Some authors recommend considering possibility of melioidosis in every febrile patient with a history of traveling to and/or staying at endemic areas.

A complete screen (blood culture, sputum culture, urine culture, throat swab, and culture of any aspirated pus) should be performed on all patients with suspected melioidosis (culture on blood agar as well as Ashdown's medium). A definitive diagnosis is made by growing "B. pseudomallei" from any site. A throat swab is not sensitive, but is 100% specific if positive, and compares favourably with sputum culture. The sensitivity of urine culture is increased if a centrifuged specimen is cultured, and any bacterial growth should be reported (not just growth above 10 organisms/ml which is the usual cutoff). Very occasionally, bone marrow culture may be positive in patients who have negative blood cultures for "B. pseudomallei", but these are not usually recommended. A common error made by clinicians unfamiliar with melioidosis is to send a specimen from only the affected site (which is the usual procedure for most other infections) instead of sending a full screen.

Ashdown's medium, a selective medium containing gentamicin, may be required for cultures taken from nonsterile sites. "Burkholderia cepacia" medium may be a useful alternative selective medium in nonendemic areas, where Ashdown's is not available. A new medium derived from Ashdown, known as Francis medium, may help differentiate "B. pseudomallei" from "B. cepacia" and may help in the early diagnosis of melioidosis, but has not yet been extensively clinically validated.

Many commercial kits for identifying bacteria may misidentify "B. pseudomallei" ("see" "Burkholderia pseudomallei" for a more detailed discussion of this topic).

A serological test for melioidosis (indirect haemagglutination) is available, but not commercially in most countries. A high background titre may reduce the positive predictive value of serological tests in endemic countries. A specific direct immunofluorescent test and latex agglutination, based on monoclonal antibodies, are used widely in Thailand, but are not available elsewhere. Cross-reactivity with "B. thailandensis" is almost complete. A commercial ELISA kit for melioidosis appears to perform well. but no ELISA test has yet been clinically validated as a diagnostic tool.

It is not possible to make the diagnosis on imaging studies alone (X-rays and scans), but imaging is routinely performed to assess the full extent of disease. Imaging of the abdomen using CT scans or ultrasound is recommended routinely, as abscesses may not be clinically apparent and may coexist with disease elsewhere. Australian authorities suggest imaging of the prostate specifically due to the high incidence of prostatic abscesses in northern Australian patients. A chest X-ray is also considered routine, with other investigations as clinically indicated. The presence of honeycomb abscesses in the liver is considered characteristic, but is not diagnostic.

The differential diagnosis is extensive; melioidosis may mimic many other infections, including tuberculosis.

This bacterium is present in soil and is transmitted to horses through open wounds, abrasions or mucous membranes.

Treatment depends on many factors, such as the age of horse, severity of symptoms and duration of infection. As long a horse is eating and drinking, the infection must run its course, much like a common cold virus. Over time a horse will build up enough antibodies to overtake and fight the disease. Other treatment options can be applying heat packs to abscesses to help draw it to the surface and using drawing salves such as Ichthammol. A blood test or bacterial cultures can be taken to confirm the horse is fighting Pigeon Fever. Anti-inflammatory such as phenylbutazone can be used to ease pain and help control swelling. Treating Pigeon Fever with antibiotics is not normally recommended for external abscesses since it is a strong bacterium that takes extended treatment to kill off and to ensure it does not return stronger. However, if the abscesses are internal then antibiotics may be needed. Consulting a veterinarian for treatment is recommended. Making the horse comfortable, ensuring the horse has good food supply and quality hay will help the horse keep their immune system strong to fight off the infection. Once the abscess breaks or pops, it will drain for a week or two. During this time keeping the area clean, applying hot packs or drawing salves will help remove the pus that has gathered in the abscess.

Person-to-person transmission is exceedingly unusual; and patients with melioidosis should not be considered contagious. Lab workers should handle "B. pseudomallei" under BSL-3 isolation conditions, as laboratory-acquired melioidosis has been described.

In endemic areas, people (rice-paddy farmers in particular) are warned to avoid contact with soil, mud, and surface water where possible. Case clusters have been described following flooding and cyclones and probably relate to exposure. Other case clusters have related to contamination of drinking water supplies. Populations at risk include patients with diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure, chronic lung disease, or an immune deficiency of any kind. The effectiveness of measures to reduce exposure to the causative organism have not been established. A vaccine is not yet available.

Possible complications include the horse becoming a chronic carrier of the disease, asphyxia due to enlarged lymph nodes compressing the larynx or windpipe, bastard strangles (spreading to other areas of the body), pneumonia, guttural pouch filled with pus, abscesses, purpura haemorrhagica, and heart disease. The average length for the course of this disease is 23 days.

As with many streptococcal infections, penicillin or penicillin-derivative antibiotics are the most effective treatments. However, some authorities are of the opinion that use of antibiotics is contra-indicated once abscesses have begun to form, as they pre-dispose to lymphatic spread of the infection (so-called bastard strangles) which has a much higher mortality rate.

After an abscess has burst, it is very important to keep the wound clean. A diluted povidone-iodine solution has been used with good results to disinfect the open hole, flushing the inside with a syringe tipped catheter or with a teat cannula, followed by gentle scrubbing to keep the surrounding area clean.

Symptomatic therapy is an alternative treatment, and is where warm packs are used to mature the abscesses so making it less painful and more comfortable for the horse itself; but once the abscesses have been matured they must be kept clean to prevent further infections.This treatment for "S.equi" only helps to reduce pain for the horse rather than curing the infection.

There is currently no known treatment for Aleutian virus. When evidence of ADV shows in a ferret, it is strongly recommended that a CEP (counterimmunoelectrophoresis) blood test or an IFA (immunoflourescent antibody) test be done. The CEP test is usually faster and less expensive than the IFA test, but the IFA test is more sensitive and can detect the disease in borderline cases.

Additionally modern methods such as Real-Time PCR allow for rapid and accurate detection as well as determination of the amount of viron present.

Prevention is best accomplished by stopping the spread of ADV. Any new ferret, or those who have been confirmed as serum positive for the virus should be perpetually isolated from other ferrets. All items that may have come into contact with the infected ferret should be cleaned with a 10% bleach solution.

This is a growing concern within mink producers as it is the most crucial infectious disease which affects farmed mink worldwide.

Dogs will typically recover from kennel cough within a few weeks. However, secondary infections could lead to complications that could do more harm than the disease itself. Several opportunistic invaders have been recovered from the respiratory tracts of dogs with kennel cough, including Streptococcus, Pasteurella, Pseudomonas, and various coliforms. These bacteria have the potential to cause pneumonia or sepsis, which drastically increase the severity of the disease. These complications are evident in thoracic radiographic examinations. Findings will be mild in animals affected only by kennel cough, while those with complications may have evidence of segmental atelectasis and other severe side effects.

A number of vaccines against canine distemper exist for dogs (ATCvet code: and combinations) and domestic ferrets (), which in many jurisdictions are mandatory for pets. Infected animals should be quarantined from other dogs for several months owing to the length of time the animal may shed the virus. The virus is destroyed in the environment by routine cleaning with disinfectants, detergents, or drying. It does not survive in the environment for more than a few hours at room temperature (20–25 °C), but can survive for a few weeks in shady environments at temperatures slightly above freezing. It, along with other labile viruses, can also persist longer in serum and tissue debris.

Despite extensive vaccination in many regions, it remains a major disease of dogs.

To prevent canine distemper, puppies should begin vaccination at six to eight weeks of age and then continue getting the “booster shot” every two to four weeks until they are 16 weeks of age. Without the full series of shots, the vaccination will not provide protection against the virus. Since puppies are typically sold at the age of eight to ten weeks, they typically receive the first shot while still with their breeder, but the new owner often does not finish the series. These dogs are not protected against the virus and so are susceptible to canine distemper infection, continuing the downward spiral that leads to outbreaks throughout the country.

The above signs, especially fever, respiratory signs, neurological signs, and thickened footpads occurring in unvaccinated dogs strongly indicate canine distemper. However, several febrile diseases match many of the signs of the disease and only recently has distinguishing between canine hepatitis, herpes virus, parainfluenza and leptospirosis been possible. Thus, finding the virus by various methods in the dog's conjunctival cells or foot pads gives a definitive diagnosis. In older dogs that develop distemper encephalomyelitis, diagnosis may be more difficult, since many of these dogs have an adequate vaccination history.

An additional test to confirm distemper is a brush border slide of the bladder transitional epithelium of the inside lining from the bladder, stained with Dif-Quick. These infected cells have inclusions which stain a carmine red color, found in the paranuclear cytoplasm readability. About 90% of the bladder cells will be positive for inclusions in the early stages of distemper.

To increase their effectiveness, vaccines should be administered as soon as possible after a dog enters a high-risk area, such as a shelter. 10 to 14 days are required for partial immunity to develop. Administration of B. bronchiseptica and canine-parainfluenza vaccines may then be continued routinely, especially during outbreaks of kennel cough. There are several methods of administration, including parenteral and intranasal. However, the intranasal method has been recommended when exposure is imminent, due to a more rapid and localized protection. Several intranasal vaccines have been developed that contain canine adenovirus in addition to B bronchiseptica and canine-parainfluenza virus antigens. Studies have thus far not been able to determine which formula of vaccination is the most efficient. Adverse effects of vaccinations are mild, but the most common effect observed up to 30 days after administration is nasal discharge. Vaccinations are not always effective. In one study it was found that 43.3% of all dogs in the study population with respiratory disease had in fact been vaccinated.

A lethal infection in mink, the Aleutian disease virus lies dormant in ferrets until stress or injury allows it to surface. While the parvovirus itself causes little or no harm to the ferret host, the large number of antibodies produced in response to the presence of the virus results in a systemic vasculitis, resulting in eventual renal failure, bone marrow suppression and death.

The symptoms are chronic, progressive weight loss, lethargy, splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), anemia, rear leg weakness, seizures and black tarry stool. Additional symptoms include poor reproduction and/or oral bleeding/gastrointestinal bleeding. Lesions can also be found within the pelt depending on the severity of the disease. This virus can unfortunately reduce fitness of wild mink especially, by disturbing both the productivity within adult females and the overall survivor rates of both juveniles and adults. Likewise, in the mink kits that survive, it infects the alveolar cells and ultimately causes respiratory distress, possibly leading to death.

Once symptoms show themselves, the disease progresses rapidly, usually to death within a few months.

The coronavirus which causes ECE has a counterpart strain that has more systemic effects with a higher mortality rate. This systemic syndrome has been compared to Feline infectious peritonitis in cats.

Epizootic catarrhal enteritis (ECE) is a viral disease that first appeared in the northeastern US in 1994, is an inflammation of the mucous membranes in the intestine. The condition manifests itself as severe diarrhea (often of a bright green color), loss of appetite, and severe weight loss. The virus can be passed via fluids and indirectly between humans. Although it was often fatal when first discovered, ECE is less of a threat today.

Death rates during outbreaks were usually extremely high, approaching 100% in immunologically naïve populations. The disease was mainly spread by direct contact and by drinking contaminated water, although it could also be transmitted by air.

Initial symptoms include fever, loss of appetite, and nasal and eye discharges. Subsequently, irregular erosions appear in the mouth, the lining of the nose, and the genital tract. Acute diarrhea, preceded by constipation, is also a common feature. Most animals die six to twelve days after the onset of these clinical signs.

Rinderpest (also cattle plague or steppe murrain) was an infectious viral disease of cattle, domestic buffalo, and many other species of even-toed ungulates, including buffaloes, large antelope and deer, giraffes, wildebeests, and warthogs. The disease was characterized by fever, oral erosions, diarrhea, lymphoid necrosis, and high mortality. Death rates during outbreaks were usually extremely high, approaching 100% in immunologically naïve populations. Rinderpest was mainly transmitted by direct contact and by drinking contaminated water, although it could also be transmitted by air. After a global eradication campaign, the last confirmed case of rinderpest was diagnosed in 2011.

On 14 October 2010, the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) announced that field activities in the decades-long, worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease were ending, paving the way for a formal declaration in June 2011 of the global eradication of rinderpest. On 25 May 2011, the World Organisation for Animal Health announced the free status of the last eight countries not yet recognized (a total of 198 countries were now free of the disease), officially declaring the eradication of the disease. In June 2011, the United Nations FAO confirmed the disease was eradicated, making rinderpest only the second disease in history to be fully wiped out (outside laboratory stocks), following smallpox.

Rinderpest is believed to have originated in Asia, later spreading through the transport of cattle. The term "Rinderpest" is a German word meaning "cattle-plague". The rinderpest virus (RPV) was closely related to the measles and canine distemper viruses. The measles virus emerged from rinderpest as a zoonotic disease between 1000 and 1100 AD, a period that may have been preceded by limited outbreaks involving a virus not yet fully acclimated to humans.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows a large number of white blood cells. Typically small mature lymphocytes are the majority of cells seen, with monocytes and neutrophils making up the rest. Definitive diagnosis is based on histopathology, either a brain biopsy or post-mortem evaluation (necropsy). A CT scan or MRI will show patchy, diffuse, or multifocal lesions. For a number of years, the basic treatment was some type of corticosteroid in combination with one or more immunosuppressive drugs, typically cytosine arabinoside and/or cyclosporine or other medications such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, or procarbazine, of which were usually added one at a time to the corticosteroid until a successful combination was found. There is evidence that treatment with radiation therapy for focal GME provides the longest periods of remission.

The gold standard for diagnosis is identification of trypanosomes in a patient sample by microscopic examination. Patient samples that can be used for diagnosis include chancre fluid, lymph node aspirates, blood, bone marrow, and, during the neurological stage, cerebrospinal fluid. Detection of trypanosome-specific antibodies can be used for diagnosis, but the sensitivity and specificity of these methods are too variable to be used alone for clinical diagnosis. Further, seroconversion occurs after the onset of clinical symptoms during a "T. b. rhodesiense" infection, so is of limited diagnostic use.

Trypanosomes can be detected from patient samples using two different preparations. A wet preparation can be used to look for the motile trypanosomes. Alternatively, a fixed (dried) smear can be stained using Giemsa's or Field's technique and examined under a microscope. Often, the parasite is in relatively low abundance in the sample, so techniques to concentrate the parasites can be used prior to microscopic examination. For blood samples, these include centrifugation followed by examination of the buffy coat; mini anion-exchange/centrifugation; and the quantitative buffy coat (QBC) technique. For other samples, such as spinal fluid, concentration techniques include centrifugation followed by examination of the sediment.

Three serological tests are also available for detection of the parasite: the micro-CATT, wb-CATT, and wb-LATEX. The first uses dried blood, while the other two use whole blood samples. A 2002 study found the wb-CATT to be the most efficient for diagnosis, while the wb-LATEX is a better exam for situations where greater sensitivity is required.

The severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a severe immunodeficiency genetic disorder that is characterized by the complete inability of the adaptive immune system to mount, coordinate, and sustain an appropriate immune response, usually due to absent or atypical T and B lymphocytes. In humans, SCID is colloquially known as "bubble boy" disease, as victims may require complete clinical isolation to prevent lethal infection from environmental microbes.

Several forms of SCID occur in animal species. Not all forms of SCID have the same cause; different genes and modes of inheritance have been implicated in different species.

Granulomatous meningoencephalitis (GME) is an inflammatory disease of the central nervous system (CNS) of dogs and, rarely, cats. It is a form of meningoencephalitis. GME is likely second only to encephalitis caused by "canine distemper virus" as the most common cause of inflammatory disease of the canine CNS. The disease is more common in female toy dogs of young and middle age. It has a rapid onset. The lesions of GME exist mainly in the white matter of the cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, and spinal cord. The cause is only known to be noninfectious and is considered at this time to be idiopathic. Because lesions resemble those seen in allergic meningoencephalitis, GME is thought to have an immune-mediated cause, but it is also thought that the disease may be based on an abnormal response to an infectious agent. One study searched for viral DNA from "canine herpesvirus", "canine adenovirus", and "canine parvovirus" in brain tissue from dogs with GME, necrotizing meningoencephalitis, and necrotizing leukoencephalitis (see below for the latter two conditions), but failed to find any.

Equine SCID is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects the Arabian horse. Similar to the "bubble boy" condition in humans, an affected foal is born with no immune system, and thus generally dies of an opportunistic infection, usually within the first four to six months of life. There is a DNA test that can detect healthy horses who are carriers of the gene causing SCID, thus testing and careful, planned matings can now eliminate the possibility of an affected foal ever being born.

SCID is one of six genetic diseases known to affect horses of Arabian bloodlines, and the only one of the six for which there is a DNA test to determine if a given horse is a carrier of the allele. There are other genetic diseases that affect other horse breeds, and horses of part-Arabian bloodlines can be carriers of SCID.

Unlike SCID in humans, which can be treated, for horses, to date, the condition remains a fatal disease. When a horse is heterozygous for the gene, it is a carrier, but perfectly healthy and has no symptoms at all. If two carriers are bred together, however, classic Mendelian genetics indicate that there is a 50% chance of any given mating producing a foal that is a carrier heterozygous for the gene, and a 25% risk of producing a foal affected by the disease. If a horse is found to carry the gene, the breeder can choose to geld a male or spay a female horse so that they cannot reproduce, or they can choose to breed the known carrier only to horses that have been tested and found to be "clear" of the gene. In either case, careful breeding practices can avoid ever producing an SCID-affected foal.

Craniomandibular osteopathy, also known as lion's jaw, is a developmental disease in dogs causing extensive bony changes in the mandible and skull. In this disease, a cyclical resorption of normal bone and replacement by immature bone occurs along the inner and outer surfaces of the affected bones. It usually occurs between the ages of 3 and 8 months. Breeds most commonly affected include the West Highland White Terrier, Scottish Terrier, Cairn Terrier, and Boston Terrier. It is rare in large-breed dogs, but it has been reported. Symptoms include firm swelling of the jaw, drooling, pain, and difficulty eating.

It is an inherited disease, especially in Westies, in which it has been recognized as an autosomal recessive trait. Canine distemper has also been indicated as a possible cause, as has "E. coli" infection, which could be why it is seen occasionally in large-breed dogs. Growth of lesions will usually stop around the age of one year, and possibly regress. This timing coincides with the normal completion of endochondral bone growth and ossification. If the disease is extensive, especially around the tympanic bulla (middle ear), then the prognosis is guarded.

A similar disease seen in young Bullmastiffs is known as calvarial hyperostotic syndrome. It is also similar to human infantile cortical hyperostosis. It is characterized by irregular, progressive bony proliferation and thickening of the cortical bone of the calvaria, which is part of the skull. Asymmetry of the lesions may occur, which makes it different from craniomandibular osteopathy. Symptoms include painful swelling of the skull, fever, and lymph node swelling. In most cases it is self-limiting.

Currently there are few medically related prevention options for African Trypanosomiasis (i.e. no vaccine exists for immunity). Although the risk of infection from a tsetse fly bite is minor (estimated at less than 0.1%), the use of insect repellants, wearing long-sleeved clothing, avoiding tsetse-dense areas, implementing bush clearance methods and wild game culling are the best options to avoid infection available for local residents of affected areas.

At the 25th ISCTRC (International Scientific Council for Trypanosomiasis Research and Control) in Mombasa, Kenya, in October 1999, the idea of an African-wide initiative to control tsetse and trypanosomiasis populations was discussed. During the 36th summit of the Organization for African Unity in Lome, Togo, in July 2000, a resolution was passed to form the Pan African Tsetse and Trypanosomiasis Eradication Campaign (PATTEC). The campaign works to eradicate the tsetse vector population levels and subsequently the protozoan disease, by use of insecticide-impregnated targets, fly traps, insecticide-treated cattle, ultra-low dose aerial/ground spraying (SAT) of tsetse resting sites and the sterile insect technique (SIT). The use of SIT in Zanzibar proved effective in eliminating the entire population of tsetse flies but was expensive and is relatively impractical to use in many of the endemic countries afflicted with African trypanosomiasis.

Regular active surveillance, involving detection and prompt treatment of new infections, and tsetse fly control is the backbone of the strategy used to control sleeping sickness. Systematic screening of at-risk communities is the best approach, because case-by-case screening is not practical in endemic regions. Systematic screening may be in the form of mobile clinics or fixed screening centres where teams travel daily to areas of high infection rates. Such screening efforts are important because early symptoms are not evident or serious enough to warrant patients with gambiense disease to seek medical attention, particularly in very remote areas. Also, diagnosis of the disease is difficult and health workers may not associate such general symptoms with trypanosomiasis. Systematic screening allows early-stage disease to be detected and treated before the disease progresses, and removes the potential human reservoir. A single case of sexual transmission of West African sleeping sickness has been reported.

The first clinical manifestation of Paget's disease is usually an elevated alkaline phosphatase in the blood.

Paget's disease may be diagnosed using one or more of the following tests:

- Pagetic bone has a characteristic appearance on X-rays. A skeletal survey is therefore indicated.

- An elevated level of alkaline phosphatase in the blood in combination with normal calcium, phosphate, and aminotransferase levels in an elderly patient are suggestive of Paget's disease.

- Markers of bone turnover in urine "eg". Pyridinoline

- Elevated levels of serum and urinary hydroxyproline are also found.

- Bone scans are useful in determining the extent and activity of the condition. If a bone scan suggests Paget's disease, the affected bone(s) should be X-rayed to confirm the diagnosis.

Although initially diagnosed by a primary care physician, endocrinologists (internal medicine physicians who specialize in hormonal and metabolic disorders), rheumatologists (internal medicine physicians who specialize in joint and muscle disorders), orthopedic surgeons, neurosurgeons, neurologists, oral and maxillofacial surgeons, podiatrists, and otolaryngologists are generally knowledgeable about treating Paget's disease, and may be called upon to evaluate specialized symptoms. It can sometimes difficult to predict whether a person with Paget's disease, who otherwise has no signs or symptoms of the disorder, will develop symptoms or complications (such as a bone fracture) in the future.