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Deep Learning Technology: Sebastian Arnold, Betty van Aken, Paul Grundmann, Felix A. Gers and Alexander Löser. Learning Contextualized Document Representations for Healthcare Answer Retrieval. The Web Conference 2020 (WWW'20)
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Prostate cancer screening is an attempt to find unsuspected cancers. Initial screens may lead to more invasive follow-up tests such as a biopsy. Options include the digital rectal exam (DRE) and the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Such screening is controversial and, in some people, may lead to unnecessary disruption and possibly harmful consequences. Routine screening with either a DRE or PSA is not supported by the evidence as there is no mortality benefit from screening.
The United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends against the PSA test for prostate cancer screening in healthy men regardless of age. They concluded that the potential benefit of testing does not outweigh the expected harms. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shared that conclusion. The American Society of Clinical Oncology and the American College of Physicians discourages screening for those who are expected to live less than ten to fifteen years, while in those with a greater life expectancy a decision should be made by the person in question based on the potential risks and benefits. In general, they concluded, "it is uncertain whether the benefits associated with PSA testing for prostate cancer screening are worth the harms associated with screening and subsequent unnecessary treatment." American Urological Association (AUA 2013) guidelines call for weighing the benefits of preventing prostate cancer mortality in 1 man for every 1,000 men screened over a ten-year period against the known harms associated with diagnostic tests and treatment. The AUA recommends screening decisions in those 55 to 69 be based on shared decision making, and that if screening is performed it should occur no more often than every two years.
In those who are being regularly screened, 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (finasteride and dutasteride) reduce the overall risk of being diagnosed with prostate cancer; however, there is insufficient data to determine if they have an effect on the risk of death and may increase the chance of more serious cases.
The clinical diagnosis of BPH is based on a history of LUTS (lower urinary tract symptoms), a digital rectal exam, and exclusion of other causes of similar signs and symptoms. The degree of LUTS does not necessarily correspond to the size of the prostate. An enlarged prostate gland on rectal examination that is symmetric and smooth supports a diagnosis of BPH. However, if the prostate gland feels asymmetrical, firm, or nodular, this raises concern for prostate cancer.
Urinalysis is typically performed when LUTS are present and BPH is suspected to evaluate for signs of a urinary tract infection, glucose in the urine (suggestive of diabetes), or protein in the urine (suggestive of kidney disease). Bloodwork including kidney function tests and prostate specific antigen (PSA) are often ordered to evaluate for kidney damage and prostate cancer, respectively. However, checking blood PSA levels for prostate cancer screening is controversial and not necessarily indicated in every evaluation for BPH. Benign prostatic hyperplasia and prostate cancer are both capable of increasing blood PSA levels and PSA elevation is unable to differentiate these two conditions well. If PSA levels are checked and are high, then further investigation is warranted. Measures including PSA density, free PSA, rectal examination, and transrectal ultrasonography may be helpful in determining whether a PSA increase is due to BPH or prostate cancer. Ultrasound examination of the testes, prostate, and kidneys is often performed, again to rule out cancer and hydronephrosis.
Validated questionnaires such as the American Urological Association Symptom Index (AUA-SI), the International Prostate Symptom Score (I-PSS), and more recently the UWIN score (urgency, weak stream, incomplete emptying, and nocturia) are useful aids to making the diagnosis of BPH and quantifying the severity of symptoms.
HGPIN is diagnosed from tissue by a pathologist, which may come from:
- a needle biopsy taken via the rectum and,
- surgical removal of prostate tissue:
- transurethral resection of the prostate - removal of extra prostate tissue to improve urination (a treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia),
- radical prostatectomy - complete removal of prostate and seminal vesicles (a treatment for prostate cancer).
Blood tests for prostate specific antigen (PSA), digital rectal examination, ultrasound scanning of the prostate via the rectum, fine needle aspiration or medical imaging studies (such as magnetic resonance imaging) are "not" useful for diagnosing HGPIN.
HGPIN in isolation does not require treatment. In prostate biopsies it is not predictive of prostate cancer in one year if the prostate was well-sampled, i.e. if there were 8 or more cores.
The exact timing of repeat biopsies remains an area of controversy, as the time required for, and probability of HGPIN transformations to prostate cancer are not well understood.
Voiding position when urinating may influence urodynamic parameters (urinary flow rate, voiding time, and post-void residual volume). A meta-analysis found no differences between the standing and sitting positions for healthy males, but that, for elderly males with lower urinary tract symptoms, voiding in the sitting position:
- the post void residual volume was decreased
- the maximum urinary flow was increased, comparable with pharmacological intervention
- the voiding time was decreased
This urodynamic profile is associated with a lower risk of urologic complications, such as cystitis and bladder stones.
Bartholin glands were described in cattle by Casper Barthlin in 1677. Their existence in humans was postulated at that time.
Treatment can be a vulvectomy that results in the removal of the growth along with an extensive removal of adjacent tissue. An iguinal lympenectomy often accompanies the vulvectomy. The tissue that is removed sometimes includes sections of the vagina and rectum.
The Adenoid cystic carcinoma of the Bartholin gland is another uncommon malignancy with symptoms that include local painful intermittent recurrences. The disease is slow to progress but it can result in lung cancer after a long time after the initial treatment. Treatment consists of surgical removal of the growth. Sometimes radiation and chemotherapy is performed.
The diagnosis of IgG4-related prostatitis could be made from histological examination if prostate biopsy or surgery has been performed. The hallmark histopathological features of established IgG4-related disease are storiform fibrosis, a dense lymphoplasmacytic (lymphocytes and plasma cells) infiltrate rich in IgG4-positive plasma cells, and obliterative phlebitis.
However, identification depends on whether or not urologists and pathologists are aware of IgG4-related prostatitis/disease, as special immunostaining is required to identify the characteristic IgG4-positive plasma cells infiltration in prostatic tissue.
The prognosis is optimistic as long as the growth has not metastasized to the lymph nodes.
Several case reports of interstitial pneumonitis (which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis) in association with bicalutamide treatment have been published in the medical literature. Interstitial pneumonitis with bicalutamide is said to be an extremely rare event, and the risk is far less relative to that seen with nilutamide (which has an incidence rate of 0.5–2% of patients). In a very large cohort of prostate cancer patients, the incidence of interstitial pneumonitis with was 0.77% for nilutamide but only 0.04% (4 per 10,000) for flutamide and 0.01% (1 per 10,000) for bicalutamide. An assessment done prior to the publication of the aforementioned study estimated the rates of pulmonary toxicity with flutamide, bicalutamide, and nilutamide as 1 case, 5 cases, and 303 cases per million, respectively. In addition to interstitial pneumonitis, a single case report of eosinophilic lung disease in association with six months of 200 mg/day bicalutamide treatment exists. Side effects associated with the rare potential pulmonary adverse reactions of bicalutamide may include dyspnea (difficult breathing or shortness of breath), cough, and pharyngitis (inflammation of the pharynx, resulting in sore throat).
Bicalutamide may cause liver changes rarely, such as elevated transaminases and jaundice. In the study of 4,052 prostate cancer patients who received 150 mg/day bicalutamide as a monotherapy, the incidence of abnormal liver function tests was 3.4% for bicalutamide and 1.9% for standard care (a 1.5% difference potentially attributable to bicalutamide) at 3-year median follow-up. For comparison, the incidences of abnormal liver function tests are 42 to 62% for flutamide, 2 to 3% for nilutamide, and (dose-dependently) between 9.6% and 28.2% for , whereas there appears to be no risk with enzalutamide. In the trial, bicalutamide-induced liver changes were usually transient and rarely severe. The drug was discontinued due to liver changes (manifested as hepatitis or marked increases in liver enzymes) in approximately 0.3% to 1% of patients treated with it for prostate cancer in clinical trials.
The risk of liver changes with bicalutamide is considered to be small but significant, and monitoring of liver function is recommended. Elevation of transaminases above twice the normal range or jaundice may be an indication that bicalutamide should be discontinued. Liver changes with bicalutamide usually occur within the first 3 or 4 months of treatment, and it is recommended that liver function be monitored regularly for the first 4 months of treatment and periodically thereafter. Symptoms that may indicate liver dysfunction include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, anorexia, "flu-like" symptoms, dark urine, and jaundice.
Out of millions of patient exposures, a total of five cases of bicalutamide-associated hepatotoxicity or liver failure, two of which were fatal, have been reported in the medical literature as of 2016. One of these cases occurred after only two doses of bicalutamide, and has been regarded as much more likely to have been caused by prolonged prior exposure of the patient to flutamide and . In the five reported cases of bicalutamide-associated hepatotoxicity, the dosages of the drug were 50 mg/day (three), 100 mg/day (one), and 150 mg/day (one). Relative to flutamide (which has an estimated incidence rate of 0.03% or 3 per 10,000), hepatotoxicity is far rarer with bicalutamide and nilutamide, and bicalutamide is regarded as having the lowest risk of the three drugs. For comparison, by 1996, 46 cases of severe cholestatic hepatitis associated with flutamide had been reported, with 20 of the cases resulting in death. Moreover, a 2002 review reported that there were 18 reports of hepatotoxicity associated with in the medical literature, with 6 of the reported cases resulting in death, and the review also cited a report of an additional 96 instances of hepatotoxicity that were attributed to , 33 of which resulted in death.
The clinical studies that have found elevated liver enzymes and the case reports of hepatotoxicity with bicalutamide have all specifically pertained to men of advanced age with prostate cancer. It is notable that older age, for a variety of reasons, appears to be an important risk factor for drug-induced hepatotoxicity. As such, the risk of liver changes with bicalutamide may be less in younger patients, for instance young hirsute women and transgender women. However, it has been reported on the basis of very limited evidence that this may not be the case with flutamide.
From a theoretical standpoint (on the basis of structure–activity relationships), it has been suggested that flutamide, bicalutamide, and nilutamide, to varying extents, all have the potential to cause liver toxicity. However, in contrast to flutamide, hydroxyflutamide, and nilutamide, bicalutamide exhibits much less or no mitochondrial toxicity and inhibition of enzymes in the electron transport chain such as respiratory complex I (), and this may be the reason for its much lower risk of hepatotoxicity in comparison. The activity difference may be related to the fact that flutamide, hydroxyflutamide, and nilutamide all possess a nitroaromatic group, whereas in bicalutamide, a cyano group is present in place of this nitro group, potentially reducing toxicity.
One study has proposed that elevated levels of soluble urokinase-type plasminogen activator receptor (SuPAR) in seminal plasma might be useful as a marker for MAGI.
There are many diagnostic methods that can be used to determine the type of salivary gland tumour and if it is benign or malignant. Examples of diagnostic methods include:
Physical exam and history: An exam of the body to check general signs of health. The head, neck, mouth, and throat will be checked for signs of disease, such as lumps or anything else that seems unusual. A history of the patient's health habits and past illnesses and treatments will also be taken.
Endoscopy: A procedure to look at organs and tissues inside the body to check for abnormal areas. For salivary gland cancer, an endoscope is inserted into the mouth to look at the mouth, throat, and larynx. An endoscope is a thin, tube-like instrument with a light and a lens for viewing.
MRI
Biopsy: The removal of cells or tissues so they can be viewed under a microscope by a pathologist to check for signs of cancer.
Fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy: The removal of tissue or fluid using a thin needle. An FNA is the most common type of biopsy used for salivary gland cancer, and has been shown to produce accurate results when differentiating between benign and malignant tumours.
Radiographs: An OPG (orthopantomogram) can be taken to rule out mandibular involvement. A chest radiograph may also be taken to rule out any secondary tumours.
Ultrasound: Ultrasound can be used to initially assess a tumour that is located superficially in either the submandibular or parotid gland. It can distinguish an intrinsic from an extrinsic neoplasm. Ultrasonic images of malignant tumours include ill defined margins.
IgG4-related disease responds well, and often dramatically, to glucocorticoid therapy, provided that advanced fibrotic lesions have not resulted in irreversible damage, and this has included resolution of radiologic findings. Men given glucocorticoids to treat IgG4-related disease at other anatomical sites sometimes report relief of their lower urinary tract symptoms, suggesting that IgG4-related prostatitis may be underdiagnosed.
Cases are however likely to get misdiagnosed as benign prostatic hyperplasia and to get treated alternatively with medications such as alpha blockers. The efficacy of alpha blockers in IgG4-related prostatitis remains unclear.
A CT scan can detect bone metastases before becoming symptomatic in patients diagnosed with tumors with risk of spread to the bones. Even sclerotic bone metastases are generally less radiodense than enostoses, and it has been suggested that bone metastasis should be the favored diagnosis between the two for bone lesions lower than a cutoff of 1060 Hounsfield units (HU).
ASAP is considered an indication for re-biopsy; in one survey of urologists 98% of respondents considered it a sufficient reason to re-biopsy.
MAGI can be diagnosed when there are two or more factors present that meet criteria defined by the World Health Organization (WHO):
Mammography is the method of choice for radiologic examination of male breast tissue in the diagnosis of gynecomastia when breast cancer is suspected on physical examination. However, since breast cancer is a rare cause of breast tissue enlargement in men, mammography is rarely needed. If mammography is performed and does not reveal findings suggestive of breast cancer, further imaging is not typically necessary. If a tumor of the adrenal glands or the testes is thought to be responsible for the gynecomastia, ultrasound examination of these structures may be performed.
On a subsequent biopsy, given the diagnosis of ASAP, the chance of finding prostate adenocarcinoma is approximately 40%; this is higher than if there is high-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (HGPIN).
Early histological features expected to be seen on examination of gynecomastic tissue attained by fine-needle aspiration biopsy include the following: proliferation and lengthening of the ducts, an increase in connective tissue, an increase in inflammation and swelling surrounding the ducts, and an increase in fibroblasts in the connective tissue. Chronic gynecomastia may show different histological features such as increased connective tissue fibrosis, an increase in the number of ducts, less inflammation than in the acute stage of gynecomastia, increased subareolar fat, and hyalinization of the stroma. When surgery is performed, the gland is routinely sent to the lab to confirm the presence of gynecomastia and to check for tumors under a microscope. The utility of pathologic examination of breast tissue removed from male adolescent gynecomastia patients has recently been questioned due to the rarity of breast cancer in this population.
It is also known that disruption of the endocrine system by certain chemicals adversely affects the development of the reproductive system and can cause vaginal cancer. Many other reproductive diseases have also been link to exposure to synthetic and environmental chemicals. Common chemicals with known links to reproductive disorders include: lead, dioxins and dioxin-like compounds, styrene, toluene, BPA (Bisphenol A) and pesticides.
Examples of cancers of the reproductive system include:
- Prostate cancer - Cancer of the prostate gland
- Breast cancer - Cancer of the mammary gland.
- Ovarian cancer - Cancer of the ovary.
- Penile cancer - Cancer of the penis.
- Uterine cancer - Cancer of the uterus.
- Testicular cancer - Cancer of the testicle/(plural:testes).
- Cervical Cancer - Cancer of the cervix.
A urogenital pelvic malignancy is a regional lymph node involvement in urogenital malignancies (category N in the TNM classification system) is a significant radiologic finding, with important implications for treatment and prognosis. Male urogenital pelvic cancers commonly spread to iliopelvic or retroperitoneal lymph nodes by following pathways of normal lymphatic drainage from the pelvic organs. The most likely pathway of nodal spread (superficial inguinal, pelvic, or paraaortic) depends on the tumour location in the prostate, penis, testes, or bladder and whether surgery or other therapy has disrupted normal lymphatic drainage from the tumour site; knowledge of both factors is needed for accurate disease staging. At present, lymph node status is most often assessed with standard anatomic imaging techniques such as multidetector computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). However, the detection of nodal disease with these techniques is reliant on lymph node size and morphological characteristics, criteria that provide limited diagnostic specificity. Functional imaging techniques, such as diffusion-weighted MRI performed with or without a lymphotropic contrast agent and positron emission tomography, may allow a more accurate nodal assessment based on molecular or physiologic activity .
No treatment required. It is standard practice for men with infertility and category IV prostatitis to be given a trial of antibiotics and/or anti-inflammatories, although evidence of efficacy are weak. Since signs of asymptomatic prostatic inflammation may sometimes be associated with prostate cancer, this can be addressed by tests that assess the ratio of free-to-total PSA. The results of these tests were significantly different in prostate cancer and category IV prostatitis in one study.
Primary treatment for this cancer, regardless of body site, is surgical removal with clean margins. This surgery can prove challenging in the head and neck region due to this tumour's tendency to spread along nerve tracts. Adjuvant or palliative radiotherapy is commonly given following surgery. For advanced major and minor salivary gland tumors that are inoperable, recurrent, or exhibit gross residual disease after surgery, fast neutron therapy is widely regarded as the most effective form of treatment.
Chemotherapy is used for metastatic disease. Chemotherapy is considered on a case by case basis, as there is limited trial data on the positive effects of chemotherapy. Clinical studies are ongoing, however.