To help with cradle cap, parents can gently massage their baby's scalp with their fingers or a soft brush to loosen the scales. They may want to shampoo the baby's hair more frequently (no more than once a day), and after shampooing gently brush the baby's scalp with a soft brush or a terrycloth towel. Oil remedies can be used by rubbing a small amount of pure, plant-derived oil (coconut oil, pure olive oil, almond oil) on the baby's scalp and leaving it on for 15 minutes. After 15 minutes, gently comb out the flakes with a fine tooth comb or brush. Be sure to wash out all of the oil to avoid making the cradle cap worse.

For infants: in cases that are related to fungal infection, such as Tinea capitis, doctors may recommend a treatment application of clotrimazole (commonly prescribed for jock itch or athlete's foot) or miconazole (commonly prescribed for vaginal yeast infections).

For toddlers: doctors may recommend a treatment with a mild dandruff shampoo such as Selsun Blue or Neutrogena T-gel, even though the treatment may cause initial additional scalp irritation. A doctor may instead prescribe an antifungal soap such as ketoconazole (2%) shampoo, which can work in a single treatment and shows significantly less irritation than over-the-counter shampoos such as selenium disulfide shampoos, but no adequate and controlled study has been conducted for pediatric use as of 2010.

For adults: see the article on seborrheic dermatitis (the adult version of cradle cap).

If the cradle cap is not severe, it could simply be combed out gently after bathing. The softened scales can then be brushed away with a soft brush, comb or cloth, but if not done very gently, this could worsen the condition and bring about temporary hair loss. Applying petroleum jelly (e.g., Vaseline) liberally overnight is another popular treatment. The softened scales either fall off during the night, or can be brushed off in the morning. Making a paste from sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) and leaving it on the affected area for 10 minutes can also help lift the scales. There have been no studies done on these treatments.

There is broad disagreement regarding the role of shampoos. Some sources warn against frequent shampooing, others recommend it. Mild baby shampoo is often recommended, but the exact denotation of the label "mild" in this context is not quite clear. Baby shampoos often contain detergent surfactants, perfumes, quaternium-15 and other eczemagenic irritants. Again, no studies have been performed on non-prescription shampoos.

In stubborn cases some doctors may recommend keratolytic (dandruff) shampoos (e.g. with sulfur, selenium, zinc pyrithione, or salicylic acid) while others warn against the use of medicated shampoos in newborns due to systemic absorption. Dandruff shampoos often contain sodium dodecyl sulfate, a noted skin irritant.

Steroid and tar preparations have also been used but may have drawbacks. Immunomodulators (tacrolimus/Protopic, pimecrolimus/Elidel) have not been approved for babies under two years.

Ketoconazole shampoos and creams are currently shown to be the most effective medical treatment of moderate to serious cradle cap. Research indicates that this anti-fungal medication is not absorbed into the bloodstream.

Possible treatments include minimizing diaper use, barrier creams, mild topical cortisones, and antifungal agents. A variety of other inflammatory and infectious processes can occur in the diaper area and an awareness of these secondary types of diaper dermatitis aids in the accurate diagnosis and treatment of patients.

Some sources claim that diaper rash is more common with cloth diapers. Others claim the material of the diaper is relevant insofar as it can wick and keep moisture away from the baby's skin, and preventing secondary "Candida" infection. However, there may not be enough data from good-quality, randomized controlled trials to support or refute disposable diaper use thus far. Furthermore, the effect of non-biodegradable diapers on the environment is a concerning matter for public policy.

There is no good evidence that a mother's diet during pregnancy, the formula used, or breastfeeding changes the risk. There is tentative evidence that probiotics in infancy may reduce rates but it is insufficient to recommend its use.

People with eczema should not get the smallpox vaccination due to risk of developing eczema vaccinatum, a potentially severe and sometimes fatal complication.

Most cases are well managed with topical treatments and ultraviolet light. About 2% of cases are not. In more than 60% of young children, the condition subsides by adolescence.

Daily use of an over-the-counter or prescription anti-fungal shampoo containing ketoconazole or zinc pyrithione may help in those with recurrent episodes of the disease.

Both natural and artificial UV radiation curbs the growth of "Malassezia" yeast.

Seborrhea is recognized as an androgen-sensitive condition – that is, it is caused or aggravated by androgen sex hormones such as testosterone and dihydrotestosterone – and is a common symptom of hyperandrogenism (e.g., that seen in polycystic ovary syndrome). In addition, seborrhea, as well as acne, are commonly associated with puberty due to the steep increase of androgen levels at that time.

In accordance with the involvement of androgens in seborrhea, antiandrogens, such as cyproterone acetate, spironolactone, and flutamide, are highly effective in alleviating the condition. As such, they are used in the treatment of seborrhea, particularly severe cases. While beneficial in seborrhea, effectiveness may vary with different antiandrogens; for instance, spironolactone (which is regarded as a relatively weak antiandrogen) has been found to produce a 50% improvement after three months of treatment, whereas flutamide has been found to result in an 80% improvement within three months. Cyproterone acetate is similarly more potent and effective than spironolactone, and results in considerable improvement or disappearance of acne and seborrhea in 90% of patients within three months.

Systemic antiandrogen therapy should only be used to treat seborrhea in women, as these drugs can result in feminization (e.g., gynecomastia), sexual dysfunction, and infertility in males. In addition, antiandrogens theoretically have the potential to feminize male fetuses in pregnant women, and for this reason, should always be combined with effective contraception in sexually active women who can or may become pregnant.

Because they are not usually associated with an increased loss rate, male-pattern and female-pattern hair loss do not generally require testing. If hair loss occurs in a young man with no family history, drug use could be the cause.

- The pull test helps to evaluate diffuse scalp hair loss. Gentle traction is exerted on a group of hairs (about 40–60) on three different areas of the scalp. The number of extracted hairs is counted and examined under a microscope. Normally, fewer than three hairs per area should come out with each pull. If more than ten hairs are obtained, the pull test is considered positive.

- The pluck test is conducted by pulling hair out "by the roots". The root of the plucked hair is examined under a microscope to determine the phase of growth, and is used to diagnose a defect of telogen, anagen, or systemic disease. Telogen hairs have tiny bulbs without sheaths at their roots. Telogen effluvium shows an increased percentage of hairs upon examination. Anagen hairs have sheaths attached to their roots. Anagen effluvium shows a decrease in telogen-phase hairs and an increased number of broken hairs.

- Scalp biopsy is used when the diagnosis is unsure; a biopsy allows for differing between scarring and nonscarring forms. Hair samples are taken from areas of inflammation, usually around the border of the bald patch.

- Daily hair counts are normally done when the pull test is negative. It is done by counting the number of hairs lost. The hair from the first morning combing or during washing should be counted. The hair is collected in a clear plastic bag for 14 days. The strands are recorded. If the hair count is >100/day, it is considered abnormal except after shampooing, where hair counts will be up to 250 and be normal.

- Trichoscopy is a noninvasive method of examining hair and scalp. The test may be performed with the use of a handheld dermoscope or a video dermoscope. It allows differential diagnosis of hair loss in most cases.

There are two types of identification tests for female pattern baldness: the Ludwig Scale and the Savin Scale. Both track the progress of diffused thinning, which typically begins on the crown of the head behind the hairline, and becomes gradually more pronounced. For male pattern baldness, the Hamilton–Norwood scale tracks the progress of a receding hairline and/or a thinning crown, through to a horseshoe-shaped ring of hair around the head and on to total baldness.

In almost all cases of thinning, and especially in cases of severe hair loss, it is recommended to seek advice from a doctor or dermatologist. Many types of thinning have an underlying genetic or health-related cause, which a qualified professional will be able to diagnose.

Instead of concealing hair loss, some may embrace it by shaving their head. A shaved head will grow stubble in the same manner and at the same rate as a shaved face. The general public has become accepting of the shaved head as well, though female baldness can be considered less socially acceptable in various parts of the world.

The condition is diagnosed by finding live lice in the hair. Finding empty eggs is not enough. This is made easier by using a magnifying glass or running a comb through the child's hair. In questionable cases, a child can be referred to a health professional. However, the condition is overdiagnosed, with extinct infestations being mistaken for active ones. As a result, lice-killing treatments are more often used on noninfested than infested children. The use of a louse comb is the most effective way to detect living lice. With both methods, special attention should be paid to the area near the ears and the nape of the neck. The use of a magnifying glass to examine the material collected between the teeth of the comb could prevent misdiagnosis.

The presence of nits alone, however, is not an accurate indicator of an active head louse infestation. Generally, white nits are empty egg casings, while brown nits may still contain viable louse larva. One way of determining the nit is to squeeze it between two fingernails; it gives a characteristic snapping pop sound as the egg bursts. Children with nits on their hair have a 35–40% chance of also being infested with living lice and eggs. If lice are detected, the entire family needs to be checked (especially children up to the age of 13 years) with a louse comb, and only those who are infested with living lice should be treated. As long as no living lice are detected, the child should be considered negative for head louse infestation. Accordingly, a child should be treated with a pediculicide only when living lice are detected on their hair (not because he/she has louse eggs/nits on the hair and not because the scalp is itchy).

Examination of the child's head at regular intervals using a louse comb allows the diagnosis of louse infestation at an early stage. Early diagnosis makes treatment easier and reduces the possibility of infesting others. In times and areas when louse infestations are common, weekly examinations of children, especially those 4–15 years old, carried out by their parents, will aid control. Additional examinations are necessary if the child came in contact with infested individuals, if the child frequently scratches his/her head, or if nits suddenly appear on the child's hair. Keeping long hair tidy could be helpful in the prevention of infestations with head lice.

Clothes, towels, bedding, combs, and brushes, which came in contact with the infested individual, can be disinfected either by leaving them outside for at least two days or by washing them at 60 °C (140 degrees F) for 30 minutes. This is because adult lice can survive only one to two days without a blood meal and are highly dependent on human body warmth. An insecticidal treatment of the house and furniture is not necessary.

Diagnosis is usually based on a medical history, elimination diet, skin prick test, blood tests for food-specific IgE antibodies, or oral food challenge.

- For skin-prick tests, a tiny board with protruding needles is used. The allergens are placed either on the board or directly on the skin. The board is then placed on the skin, to puncture the skin and for the allergens to enter the body. If a hive appears, the person is considered positive for the allergy. This test only works for IgE antibodies. Allergic reactions caused by other antibodies cannot be detected through skin-prick tests.

Skin-prick testing is easy to do and results are available in minutes. Different allergists may use different devices for testing. Some use a "bifurcated needle", which looks like a fork with two prongs. Others use a "multitest", which may look like a small board with several pins sticking out of it. In these tests, a tiny amount of the suspected allergen is put onto the skin or into a testing device, and the device is placed on the skin to prick, or break through, the top layer of skin. This puts a small amount of the allergen under the skin. A hive will form at any spot where the person is allergic. This test generally yields a positive or negative result. It is good for quickly learning if a person is allergic to a particular food or not, because it detects IgE. Skin tests cannot predict if a reaction would occur or what kind of reaction might occur if a person ingests that particular allergen. They can, however, confirm an allergy in light of a patient's history of reactions to a particular food. Non-IgE-mediated allergies cannot be detected by this method.

- Patch testing is used to determine if a specific substance causes allergic inflammation of the skin. It tests for delayed food reactions.

- Blood testing is another way to test for allergies; however, it poses the same disadvantage and only detects IgE allergens and does not work for every possible allergen. Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) is used to detect IgE antibodies present to a certain allergen. The score taken from the RAST is compared to predictive values, taken from a specific type of RAST. If the score is higher than the predictive values, a great chance the allergy is present in the person exists. One advantage of this test is that it can test many allergens at one time.

A CAP-RAST has greater specificity than RAST; it can show the amount of IgE present to each allergen. Researchers have been able to determine "predictive values" for certain foods, which can be compared to the RAST results. If a person's RAST score is higher than the predictive value for that food, over a 95% chance exists that patients will have an allergic reaction (limited to rash and anaphylaxis reactions) if they ingest that food. Currently, predictive values are available for milk, egg, peanut, fish, soy, and wheat. Blood tests allow for hundreds of allergens to be screened from a single sample, and cover food allergies as well as inhalants. However, non-IgE-mediated allergies cannot be detected by this method. Other widely promoted tests such as the antigen leukocyte cellular antibody test and the food allergy profile are considered unproven methods, the use of which is not advised.

- Food challenges test for allergens other than those caused by IgE allergens. The allergen is given to the person in the form of a pill, so the person can ingest the allergen directly. The person is watched for signs and symptoms. The problem with food challenges is that they must be performed in the hospital under careful watch, due to the possibility of anaphylaxis.

Food challenges, especially double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenges, are the gold standard for diagnosis of food allergies, including most non-IgE-mediated reactions. Blind food challenges involve packaging the suspected allergen into a capsule, giving it to the patient, and observing the patient for signs or symptoms of an allergic reaction.

The best method for diagnosing food allergy is to be assessed by an allergist. The allergist will review the patient's history and the symptoms or reactions that have been noted after food ingestion. If the allergist feels the symptoms or reactions are consistent with food allergy, he/she will perform allergy tests. Additional diagnostic tools for evaluation of eosinophilic or non-IgE mediated reactions include endoscopy, colonoscopy, and biopsy.

Important differential diagnoses are:

- Lactose intolerance generally develops later in life, but can present in young patients in severe cases. It is due to an enzyme deficiency (lactase) and not allergy, and occurs in many non-Western people.

- Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten proteins such as gliadin (present in wheat, rye, and barley). It is a non-IgE-mediated food allergy by definition.

- Irritable bowel syndrome

- C1 Esterase inhibitor deficiency (hereditary angioedema), a rare disease, generally causes attacks of angioedema, but can present solely with abdominal pain and occasional diarrhea.

Lung biopsies can be diagnostic in cases of chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis, or may help to suggest the diagnosis and trigger or intensify the search for an allergen. The main feature of chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis on lung biopsies is expansion of the interstitium by lymphocytes accompanied by an occasional multinucleated giant cell or loose granuloma.

When fibrosis develops in chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis, the differential diagnosis in lung biopsies includes the idiopathic interstitial pneumonias. This group of diseases includes usual interstitial pneumonia, non-specific interstitial pneumonia and cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, among others.

The prognosis of some idiopathic interstitial pneumonias, e.g. idiopathic usual interstitial pneumonia (i.e. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis), are very poor and the treatments of little help. This contrasts the prognosis (and treatment) for hypersensitivity pneumonitis, which is generally fairly good if the allergen is identified and exposures to it significantly reduced or eliminated. Thus, a lung biopsy, in some cases, may make a decisive difference.

The widespread use of wetsuits has allowed people to surf in much colder waters, which has increased the incidence and severity of surfer's ear for people who do not properly protect their ears.

- Avoid activity during extremely cold or windy conditions.

- Keep the ear canal as warm and dry as possible.

- Ear plugs

- Wetsuit hood

- Swim cap

- Diving helmet

The diagnosis is based upon a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and clinical tests. A physician may take blood tests, seeking signs of inflammation, a chest X-ray and lung function tests. The sufferer shows a restrictive loss of lung function.

Precipitating IgG antibodies against fungal or avian antigens can be detected in the laboratory using the traditional Ouchterlony immunodiffusion method wherein 'precipitin' lines form on agar plate. The ImmunoCAP technology has replaced this time consuming, labor-intensive method with their automated CAP assays and FEIA (Fluorescence enzyme immunoassay) that can detect IgG antibodies against Aspergillus fumigatus (Farmer's lung or for ABPA) or avian antigens (Bird Fancier's Lung).

Although overlapping in many cases, hypersensitivity pneumonitis may be distinguished from occupational asthma in that it is not restricted to only occupational exposure, and that asthma generally is classified as a type I hypersensitivity. Unlike asthma, hypersensitivity pneumonitis targets lung alveoli rather than bronchi.

Surgery to remove the obstructing ear canal bone is usually performed under general anesthesia in an operating room and aided by the use of a binocular microscope. Most ear surgeons use a drill to remove the bone and may approach the area directly via the ear canal or by making an incision behind the ear and dissecting the ear forward. In using a drilling technique it is important to keep the thin inner ear canal skin away from the drill to preserve the skin and allow optimal skin coverage at the conclusion of the surgery.

Some doctors now prefer to use 1 millimeter chisels to remove the obstructing bone and enter directly through the ear canal. This technique enhances skin preservation. This technique may, in some cases, be performed under sedation with local anesthesia.

During recuperation from surgery it is extremely important not to expose the ear canal to water to minimize the chance of infection or complications.

Depending on the condition of the ear canal and the surgical technique used, the ear canal may require several weeks to several months to heal.

Unprotected exposure of ear canals to cold water and wind after treatment can lead to regrowth of bone and the need for repeated operations on the same ear.

The presentation of caries is highly variable. However, the risk factors and stages of development are similar. Initially, it may appear as a small chalky area (smooth surface caries), which may eventually develop into a large cavitation. Sometimes caries may be directly visible. However other methods of detection such as X-rays are used for less visible areas of teeth and to judge the extent of destruction. Lasers for detecting caries allow detection without ionizing radiation and are now used for detection of interproximal decay (between the teeth). Disclosing solutions are also used during tooth restoration to minimize the chance of recurrence.

Primary diagnosis involves inspection of all visible tooth surfaces using a good light source, dental mirror and explorer. Dental radiographs (X-rays) may show dental caries before it is otherwise visible, in particular caries between the teeth. Large areas of dental caries are often apparent to the naked eye, but smaller lesions can be difficult to identify. Visual and tactile inspection along with radiographs are employed frequently among dentists, in particular to diagnose pit and fissure caries. Early, uncavitated caries is often diagnosed by blowing air across the suspect surface, which removes moisture and changes the optical properties of the unmineralized enamel.

Some dental researchers have cautioned against the use of dental explorers to find caries, in particular sharp ended explorers. In cases where a small area of tooth has begun demineralizing but has not yet cavitated, the pressure from the dental explorer could cause a cavity. Since the carious process is reversible before a cavity is present, it may be possible to arrest caries with fluoride and remineralize the tooth surface. When a cavity is present, a restoration will be needed to replace the lost tooth structure.

At times, pit and fissure caries may be difficult to detect. Bacteria can penetrate the enamel to reach dentin, but then the outer surface may remineralize, especially if fluoride is present. These caries, sometimes referred to as "hidden caries", will still be visible on X-ray radiographs, but visual examination of the tooth would show the enamel intact or minimally perforated.

The differential diagnosis for dental caries includes dental fluorosis and developmental defects of the tooth including hypomineralization of the tooth and hypoplasia of the tooth.

The early carious lesion is characterized by demineralization of the tooth surface, altering the tooth's optical properties. Technology utilizing laser speckle image (LSI) techniques may provide a diagnostic aid to detect early carious lesions.

Personal hygiene care consists of proper brushing and flossing daily. The purpose of oral hygiene is to minimize any etiologic agents of disease in the mouth. The primary focus of brushing and flossing is to remove and prevent the formation of plaque or dental biofilm. Plaque consists mostly of bacteria. As the amount of bacterial plaque increases, the tooth is more vulnerable to dental caries when carbohydrates in the food are left on teeth after every meal or snack. A toothbrush can be used to remove plaque on accessible surfaces, but not between teeth or inside pits and fissures on chewing surfaces. When used correctly, dental floss removes plaque from areas that could otherwise develop proximal caries but only if the depth of sulcus has not been compromised. Other adjunct oral hygiene aids include interdental brushes, water picks, and mouthwashes.

However oral hygiene is probably more effective at preventing gum disease (periodontal disease) than tooth decay. Food is forced inside pits and fissures under chewing pressure, leading to carbohydrate-fueled acid demineralisation where the brush, fluoride toothpaste, and saliva have no access to remove trapped food, neutralise acid, or remineralise demineralised tooth like on other more accessible tooth surfaces. (Occlusal caries accounts for between 80 and 90% of caries in children (Weintraub, 2001).) Higher concentrations of fluoride (>1,000 ppm) in toothpaste also helps prevents tooth decay, with the effect increasing with concentration. Chewing fibre like celery after eating forces saliva inside trapped food to dilute any carbohydrate like sugar, neutralise acid and remineralise demineralised tooth. The teeth at highest risk for carious lesions are the permanent first and second molars due to length of time in oral cavity and presence of complex surface anatomy.

Professional hygiene care consists of regular dental examinations and professional prophylaxis (cleaning). Sometimes, complete plaque removal is difficult, and a dentist or dental hygienist may be needed. Along with oral hygiene, radiographs may be taken at dental visits to detect possible dental caries development in high-risk areas of the mouth (e.g. "bitewing" X-rays which visualize the crowns of the back teeth).

Because an acute hematoma can lead to cauliflower ear, prompt evacuation of the blood is needed to prevent permanent deformity. The outer ear is prone to infections, so antibiotics are usually prescribed. Pressure is applied by bandaging, helping the skin and the cartilage to reconnect. Without medical intervention the ear can suffer serious damage. Disruption of the ear canal is possible. The outer ear may wrinkle, and can become slightly pale due to reduced blood flow; hence the common term "cauliflower ear". Cosmetic procedures are available that can possibly improve the appearance of the ear.

Osteochondromas are often asymptomatic and may not cause any kind of discomfort. They are often found accidentally when an X-ray is done for an unrelated reason.

- X-rays are the first tests performed that characterize a lesion. They show a clear picture of dense structures of bones, and will also indicate bone growth pertaining to osteochondroma.

- Computed Tomography (CT) scan can identify the bony lesion in great details and show the presence of calcification. These tests also provide great details, especially in soft tissues with the aide of cross-sectional images.

- Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is the most accurate method for detecting bone masses in symptomatic cases to depict precise morphology of a tumor. It is used to verify if the palpable mass is continuous with the cortex of the affected bone and to differentiate an osteochondroma from other lesions on the surface of the bone. MRI can also be used to look for cartilage on the surface of tumor and can depict any vascular complications caused by the tumor. An MRI can identify tumors of the spinal column and is often used to diagnose low grade osteosarcoma.

- Ultrasound is done if aneurysms or pseudoaneurysms and venous or arterial thrombosis is suspected. Ultrasound is an accurate method for examining the cartilaginous cap of the osteochondroma. It is also a way of pinpointing bursitis. However, it cannot be used to predict if the growth of tumor is inward in regards to the cap.

- Angiography is used to detect vascular lesions caused by osteochondroma due to ossified cartilaginous cap. It is also used to characterize malignant transformation lesions through neovascularity.

- Clinical testing such as sequence analysis can be done of the entire coding regions of both "EXT1" and "EXT2" to detect mutations.

- A biopsy of the tissue sample of the tumor can also be taken to check for cancer.

Tests for osteochondroma can also identify diseases such as secondary peripheral chondrosarcoma and Multiple osteochondromatosis. In large, secondary chondrosarcoma arises at the site of osteochondroma due to increased thickness of the cartilage cap indicating potential malignant transformation. The symptoms of multiple osteochondromatosis are similar to solitary osteochondroma, but they are often more severe. Painless bumps can arise at the site of tumor and pain and other discomforts can also take place if pressure is put on the soft tissues, nerves, or blood vessels. Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (DEH) or Trevor's disease and metachondromatosis (MC) are considered differential diagnosis of both solitary and hereditary osteochondromas. DEH is described as a type of over growth at one or more epiphyses. Similar to osteochondroma, DEH is diagnosed prior to 15 years of age and the growth of lesions end at puberty, when the growth plates close. Metachondromatosis is a rare disorder that exhibit symptoms of both multiple osteochondromas and enchondromas in children and is also inherited in autosomal dominant mode.

Headgear called a "scrum cap" in rugby, or simply "headgear" or earguard in wrestling and other martial arts, that protects the ears is worn to help prevent this condition. For some athletes, however, a cauliflower ear is considered a badge of courage or experience.

A chignon is a temporary swelling left on an infant's head after a ventouse suction cap has been used to deliver him or her. It is not a sign of serious injury and may take as little as two hours or as long as two weeks to disappear.