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Deep Learning Technology: Sebastian Arnold, Betty van Aken, Paul Grundmann, Felix A. Gers and Alexander Löser. Learning Contextualized Document Representations for Healthcare Answer Retrieval. The Web Conference 2020 (WWW'20)
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Avoidance of recognised risk factors (as described above) is the single most effective form of prevention. Regular dental examinations may identify pre-cancerous lesions in the oral cavity.
When diagnosed early, oral, head and neck cancers can be treated more easily and the chances of survival increase tremendously. As of 2017 it was not known if existing HPV vaccines can help prevent head and neck cancer.
Diagnosis is confirmed via biopsy of the tissue(s) suspected to be affected by SCC. For the skin, look under skin biopsy.
The pathological appearance of a squamous cell cancer varies with the depth of the biopsy. For that reason, a biopsy including the subcutaneous tissue and basalar epithelium, to the surface is necessary for correct diagnosis. The performance of a shave biopsy (see skin biopsy) might not acquire enough information for a diagnosis. An inadequate biopsy might be read as actinic keratosis with follicular involvement. A deeper biopsy down to the dermis or subcutaneous tissue might reveal the true cancer. An excision biopsy is ideal, but not practical in most cases. An incisional or punch biopsy is preferred. A shave biopsy is least ideal, especially if only the superficial portion is acquired.
Some suggestions for surveillance for cancer include the following:
- Small intestine with small bowel radiography every 2 years,
- Esophagogastroduodenoscopy and colonoscopy every 2 years,
- CT scan or MRI of the pancreas yearly,
- Ultrasound of the pelvis (women) and testes (men) yearly,
- Mammography (women) from age 25 annually livelong, and
- Papanicolaou smear (Pap smear) every year
Follow-up care should be supervised by a physician familiar with Peutz–Jeghers syndrome. Genetic consultation and counseling as well as urological and gynecological consultations are often needed.
The long-term outcome of squamous cell carcinomas is dependent upon several factors: the sub-type of the carcinoma, available treatments, location(s) and severity, and various patient health-related variables (accompanying diseases, age, etc.). Generally, the long-term outcome is positive, as less than 4% of Squamous cell carcinoma cases are at risk of metastasis. Some particular forms of squamous cell carcinomas have a higher mortality rate. One study found squamous cell carcinoma of the penis had a much greater rate of mortality than some other forms of squamous cell carcinoma, that is, about 23%, although this relatively high mortality rate may be associated with possibly latent diagnosis of the disease due to patients avoiding genital exams until the symptoms are debilitating, or refusal to submit to a possibly scarring operation upon the genitalia. Squamous cell carcinoma occurring in the organ transplant population is also associated with a higher risk of mortality.
Adenocarcinoma is a cancer of epithelial tissue that has glandular characteristics. Several head and neck cancers are adenocarcinomas (either of intestinal or non-intestinal cell-type).
The main criteria for clinical diagnosis are:
- Family history
- Mucocutaneous lesions causing patches of hyperpigmentation in the mouth and on the hands and feet. The oral pigmentations are the first on the body to appear, and thus play an important part in early diagnosis. Intraorally, they are most frequently seen on the gingiva, hard palate and inside of the cheek. The mucosa of the lower lip is almost invariably involved as well.
- Hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. These are benign polyps with an extraordinarily low potential for malignancy.
Having 2 of the 3 listed clinical criteria indicates a positive diagnosis. The oral findings are consistent with other conditions, such as Addison's disease and McCune-Albright syndrome, and these should be included in the differential diagnosis. 90–100% of patients with a clinical diagnosis of PJS have a mutation in the "STK11/LKB1" gene. Molecular genetic testing for this mutation is available clinically.
MASC is currently treated as a low-grade (i.e. Grade 1) carcinoma with an overall favorable prognosis. These cases are treated by complete surgical excision. However, the tumor does have the potential to recur locally and/or spread beyond surgically dissectible margins as well as metastasize to regional lymph nodes and distant tissues, particularly in tumors with histological features indicating a high cell growth rate potential. One study found lymph node metastasis in 5 of 34 MASC patients at initial surgery for the disease; these cases, when evidencing no further spread of disease, may be treated with radiation therapy. The treatment of cases with disease spreading beyond regional lymph nodes has been variable, ranging from simple excision to radical resections accompanied by adjuvant radiotherapy and/or chemotherapy, depending on the location of disease. Mean disease-free survival for MASC patients has been reported to be 92 months in one study.
The tyrosine kinase activity of NTRK3 as well as the ETV6-NTRK3 protein is inhibited by certain tyrosine kinase inhibitory drugs such as Entrectinib and LOXO-101; this offers a potential medical intervention method using these drugs to treat aggressive MASC disease. Indeed, one patient with extensive head and neck MASC disease obtained an 89% fall in tumor size when treated with entrectinib. This suppression lasted only 7 months due to the tumor's acquirement of a mutation in the "ETV6-NTRK3" gene. The newly mutated gene encoded an entrectinib-reisistant "ETV6-NTRK3" protein. Treatment of aggressive forms of MASC with NTRK3-inhibiting tyrosine kinase inhibiting drugs, perhaps with switching to another type of tyrosine kinase inhibitor drug if the tumor acquires resistance to the initial drug, is under study.STARTRK-2
DNA testing is now the preferred method of establishing a diagnosis for MEN 2B, and is thought to be almost 100% sensitive and specific. Gordon et al. reported cases of a difference disease—the "multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome"—having the physical phenotype of MEN2B, but without variations in the RET gene and without malignancy.
MEN2B should be entertained as a diagnosis whenever a person is found to have either medullary thyroid carcinoma or pheochromocytoma. Before DNA testing became available, measurement of serum calcitonin was the most important laboratory test for MEN2B. Calcitonin is produced by the "C" cells of the thyroid, which, because they are always hyperplastic or malignant in MEN2B, produce more calcitonin than normal. Calcitonin levels remain a valuable marker to detect recurrence of medullary thyroid carcinoma after thyroidectomy.
Luxol fast blue staining identifies myelin sheathing of some fibers, and lesional cells react immunohistochemically for S-100 protein, collagen type IV, vimentin, NSE, and neural filaments. More mature lesions will react also for EMA, indicating a certain amount of perineurial differentiation. Early lesions, rich in acid mucopolysaccharides, stain positively with alcian blue. When medullary thyroid cancer is present, levels of the hormone calcitonin are elevated in serum and urine. Under the microscope, tumors may closely resemble traumatic neuroma, but the streaming fascicles of mucosal neuroma are usually more uniform and the intertwining nerves of the traumatic neuroma lack the thick perineurium of the mucosal neuroma. Inflammatory cells are not seen in the stroma and dysplasia is not present in the neural tissues.
Without treatment, persons with MEN2B die prematurely. Details are lacking, owing to the absence of formal studies, but it is generally assumed that death in the 30s is typical unless prophylactic thyroidectomy and surveillance for pheochromocytoma are performed (see below). The range is quite variable, however: death early in childhood can occur, and it is noteworthy that a few untreated persons have been diagnosed in their 50s. Recently, a larger experience with the disease "suggests that the prognosis in an individual patient may be better than previously considered."
Thyroidectomy is the mainstay of treatment, and should be performed without delay as soon as a diagnosis of MEN2B is made, even if no malignancy is detectable in the thyroid. Without thyroidectomy, almost all patients with MEN2B develop medullary thyroid cancer, in a more aggressive form than MEN 2A. The ideal age for surgery is 4 years old or younger, since cancer may metastasize before age 10.
Pheochromocytoma - a hormone secreting tumor of the adrenal glands - is also present in 50% of cases. Affected individuals are encouraged to get yearly screenings for thyroid and adrenal cancer.
Because prophylactic thyroidectomy improves survival, blood relatives of a person with MEN2B should be evaluated for MEN2B, even if lacking the typical signs and symptoms of the disorder.The mucosal neuromas of this syndrome are asymptomatic and self-limiting, and present no problem requiring treatment. They may, however, be surgically removed for aesthetic purposes or if they are being constantly traumatized.
An acanthoma is a skin neoplasm composed of squamous or epidermal cells. It is located in the prickle cell layer.
Types of acanthoma include pilar sheath acanthoma, a benign follicular tumor usually of the upper lip; clear cell acanthoma, a benign tumor found most frequently on the legs; and Degos acanthoma, often confused with but unrelated to Degos disease.
Mammary analogue secretory carcinoma occurs somewhat more commonly in men (male to female ratio of <1.5:1.0). Patients with this disease have a mean age of 46 years although ~12% of cases occur in pediatric patients. Individuals typically present with symptomless tumors in the [[parotid|parotid salivary gland]] (68%), [[Oral mucosa#classification|buccal mucosa salivary glands]] (9%), [[Submandibular gland|submandibular salivary gland]] (8%) or in the small salivary glands of the lower lip (5%), upper lip (4%), and [[hard palate]] (4%). [[Histologically]], these tumors are described as have a morphology similar to secretory breast carcinoma; they typically having one or more of the following histological patterns: microcystic, papillary-cystic, follicular, and/or solid lobular. Other histological features of these tissues include: the presence of eosinophilic secretions as detected by staining strongly for [[eosin Y]]; positive staining with [[periodic acid-Schiff stain]] (often after [[diastase]]); the presence of vesicular oval nuclei with a single small but prominent [[nucleolus]]; and the absence of basophilic [[Haematoxylin]] or [[zymogen]] granules (i.e. vesicles that store enzymes near the cell's plasma membrane).
The cited histology features are insufficient to distinguish MASC from other [[Salivary gland neoplasm]]s such as [[acinic cell carcinoma]], low-grade cribriform cystadenocarcinoma, and adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified. MASC can be distinguished from these and other histologically similar tumors by either tissue identification of a) the "ETV6-NTRK3" fusion gene using [[Fluorescence in situ hybridization]] or [[reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction]] gene detection methods or b) a specific pattern of marker proteins as registered using specific antibody-based detection methods, i.e. MASC tissue should have detectable [[S100 protein|S100]] (a family of calcium binding proteins), [[Mammaglobin]] (a breast cancer marker, Keratin 7 (an intermediate filament found in epithelial cells), GATA3 (a transcription factor and breast cancer biomarker), SOX10 (a transcription factor important in neural crest origin cells and development of the peripheral nervous system), and STAT5A (a transcription factor) but lack antibody-detectable TP63 (a transcription factor in the same family as p53) and Anoctamin-1 (a voltage sensitive calcium activated chloride channel).
Fordyce spots are completely benign and require no treatment. Often their presence is considered normal anatomic variance rather than a true medical condition.
The main diagnostic tools for evaluating FND are X-rays and CT-scans of the skull. These tools could display any possible intracranial pathology in FND. For example, CT can be used to reveal widening of nasal bones. Diagnostics are mainly used before reconstructive surgery, for proper planning and preparation.
Prenatally, various features of FND (such as hypertelorism) can be recognized using ultrasound techniques. However, only three cases of FND have been diagnosed based on a prenatal ultrasound.
Other conditions may also show symptoms of FND. For example, there are other syndromes that also represent with hypertelorism. Furthermore, disorders like an intracranial cyst can affect the frontonasal region, which can lead to symptoms similar to FND. Therefore, other options should always be considered in the differential diagnosis.
Lip pits are harmless and do not usually require any treatment, although in some reported cases surgical excision has been used.
Genetic counseling for VWS involves discussion of disease transmission in the autosomal dominant manner and possibilities for penetrance and expression in offspring. Autosomal dominance means affected parents have a 50% chance of passing on their mutated "IRF6" allele to a their child. Furthermore, if a cleft patient has lip pits, he or she has a ten times greater risk of having a child with cleft lip with or without cleft palate than a cleft patient who does not have lip pits. Types of clefting between parents and affected children are significantly associated; however, different types of clefts may occur horizontally and vertically within the same pedigree. In cases where clefting is the only symptom, a complete family history must be taken to ensure the patient does not have non-syndromic clefting.
Most doctors consider this a normal physiological phenomenon and advise against treatment.
A doctor can diagnose a stork bite with a simple visual inspection. No tests are needed.
A pilar sheath acanthoma is a cutaneous condition most often found on the face, particularly above the upper lip in adults.
Lip pits may be surgically removed either for aesthetic reasons or discomfort due to inflammation caused by bacterial infections or chronic saliva excretion, though spontaneous shrinkage of the lip pits has occurred in some rare cases. Chronic inflammation has also been reported to cause squamous-cell carcinoma. It is essential to completely remove the entire lip pit canal, as mucoid cysts can develop if mucous glands are not removed. A possible side effect of removing the lip pits is a loose lip muscle. Other conditions associated with VWS, including CL, CP, congenital heart defects, etc. are surgically corrected or otherwise treated as they would be if they were non-syndromic.
Most stork bites on the face go away completely in about 18 months. Stork bites on the back of the neck usually do not go away.
The treatment of soft tissue parts of midface anomalies is often a reconstruction from a skin flap of the cheek. This skinflap can be used for other operations in the further, as it can be raised again and transposed again. In the treatment of midface anomalies there are generally more operations needed. Bone tissue reconstruction of the midface often occurs later than the soft tissue reconstruction. The most common method to reconstruct the midface is by using the fracture/ incision lines described by René Le Fort. When the cleft involves the maxilla, it is likely that the impaired growth will result in a smaller maxillary bone in all 3 dimensions (height, projection, width).
Structural nasal deformities are corrected during or shortly after the facial bipartition surgery. In this procedure, bone grafts are used to reconstruct the nasal bridge. However, a second procedure is often needed after the development of the nose has been finalized (at the age of 14 years or even later).
Secondary rhinoplasty is based mainly on a nasal augmentation, since it has been proven better to add tissue to the nose than to remove tissue. This is caused by the minimal capacity of contraction of the nasal skin after surgery.
In rhinoplasty, the use of autografts (tissue from the same person as the surgery is performed on) is preferred. However, this is often made impossible by the relative damage done by previous surgery. In those cases, bone tissue from the skull or the ribs is used. However, this may give rise to serious complications such as fractures, resorption of the bone, or a flattened nasofacial angle.
To prevent these complications, an implant made out of alloplastic material could be considered. Implants take less surgery time, are limitlessly available and may have more favorable characteristics than autografts. However, possible risks are rejection, infection, migration of the implant, or unpredictable changes in the physical appearance in the long term.
At the age of skeletal maturity, orthognathic surgery may be needed because of the often hypoplastic maxilla. Skeletal maturity is usually reached around the age of 13 to 16. Orthognathic surgery engages in diagnosing and treating disorders of the face and teeth- and jaw position.
Screening methods for colon cancer depend on detecting either precancerous changes such as certain kinds of polyps or on finding early and thus more treatable cancer. The extent to which screening procedures reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal cancer or mortality depends on the rate of precancerous and cancerous disease in that population. gFOBT (guaiac fecal occult blood test) and flexible sigmoidoscopy screening have each shown benefit in randomized clinical trials. Evidence for other colon cancer screening tools such as iFOBT (immunochemical fecal occult blood test) or colonoscopy is substantial and guidelines have been issued by several advisory groups but does not include randomized studies.
In 2009 the American College of Gastroenterology (ACG) suggest that colon cancer screening modalities that are also directly preventive by removing precursor lesions should be given precedence, and prefer a colonoscopy every 10 years in average-risk individuals, beginning at age 50. The ACG suggests that cancer detection tests such as any type of FOB are an alternative that is less preferred, and if a colonoscopy is declined, the FIT (fecal immunochemical test, or iFOBT) should be offered instead. Two other recent guidelines, from the US Multisociety Task Force (MSTF) and the US Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF), while permitting immediate colonoscopy as an option, did not categorize it as preferred. The ACG and MSTF also included CT colonography every five years, and fecal DNA testing as considerations. All three recommendation panels recommended replacing any older low-sensitivity, guaiac-based fecal occult blood testing (gFOBT) with either newer high-sensitivity guaiac-based fecal occult blood testing (hs gFOBT) or fecal immunochemical testing (FIT). MSTF looked at six studies that compared high sensitivity gFOBT (Hemoccult SENSA) to FIT, and concluded that there was no clear difference in overall performance between these methods.
The American College of Gastroenterology has recommended the abandoning of gFOBT testing as a colorectal cancer screening tool, in favor of the fecal immunochemical test. Though the FIT test is preferred, even the guaiac FOB testing of average risk populations may have been sufficient to reduce the mortality associated with colon cancer by about 25%. With this lower efficacy, it was not always cost effective to screen a large population with gFOBT.
If colon cancer is suspected in an individual (such as in someone with an unexplained anemia) fecal occult blood tests may not be clinically helpful. If a doctor suspects colon cancer, more rigorous investigation is necessary, whether or not the test is positive.
In 2006, the Australian Government introduced the National Bowel Cancer Program which has been updated several times since; targeted screening will be done of all Australians aged over 50 to 74 by 2017–2018. Cancer Council Australia recommended that FOBT should be done every two years. Gradually government fund disbursement meant that some people are not yet eligible for the national program and should pay for a FOBT by themselves.
The Canadian Cancer Society recommends that men and women age 50 and over have a FOBT at least every 2 years.
In colon cancer screening, using only one sample of feces collected by a doctor performing a digital rectal examination is discouraged.
The use of the M2-PK Test is encouraged over gFOBT for routine screening as it may pick up tumors that are both bleeding and non bleeding. It is able to pick up 80 percent of colorectal cancer and 44 percent for adenoma > 1 centimeter, while gFOBT picks up 13 to 50 percent of colorectal cancers.
Diagnosis can be made solely on the basis of history and physical examination in people who present with only facial asymmetry. For those who report neurological symptoms such as migraine or seizures, MRI scan of the brain is the imaging modality of choice. A diagnostic lumbar puncture and serum test for autoantibodies may also be indicated in people who present with a seizure disorder of recent onset.
This condition is considered premalignant because it may lead to squamous cell carcinoma in about 10% of all cases. It is not possible to predict which cases will progress into SCC, so the current consensus is that all lesions should be treated.
Treatment options include 5-fluorouracil, imiquimod, scalpel vermillionectomy, chemical peel, electrosurgery, and carbon dioxide laser vaporization. These curative treatments attempt to destroy or remove the damaged epithelium. All methods are associated with some degree of pain, edema, and a relatively low rate of recurrence.