Prostate cancer screening is an attempt to find unsuspected cancers. Initial screens may lead to more invasive follow-up tests such as a biopsy. Options include the digital rectal exam (DRE) and the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Such screening is controversial and, in some people, may lead to unnecessary disruption and possibly harmful consequences. Routine screening with either a DRE or PSA is not supported by the evidence as there is no mortality benefit from screening.

The United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends against the PSA test for prostate cancer screening in healthy men regardless of age. They concluded that the potential benefit of testing does not outweigh the expected harms. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shared that conclusion. The American Society of Clinical Oncology and the American College of Physicians discourages screening for those who are expected to live less than ten to fifteen years, while in those with a greater life expectancy a decision should be made by the person in question based on the potential risks and benefits. In general, they concluded, "it is uncertain whether the benefits associated with PSA testing for prostate cancer screening are worth the harms associated with screening and subsequent unnecessary treatment." American Urological Association (AUA 2013) guidelines call for weighing the benefits of preventing prostate cancer mortality in 1 man for every 1,000 men screened over a ten-year period against the known harms associated with diagnostic tests and treatment. The AUA recommends screening decisions in those 55 to 69 be based on shared decision making, and that if screening is performed it should occur no more often than every two years.

In those who are being regularly screened, 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (finasteride and dutasteride) reduce the overall risk of being diagnosed with prostate cancer; however, there is insufficient data to determine if they have an effect on the risk of death and may increase the chance of more serious cases.

There are many diagnostic methods that can be used to determine the type of salivary gland tumour and if it is benign or malignant. Examples of diagnostic methods include:

Physical exam and history: An exam of the body to check general signs of health. The head, neck, mouth, and throat will be checked for signs of disease, such as lumps or anything else that seems unusual. A history of the patient's health habits and past illnesses and treatments will also be taken.

Endoscopy: A procedure to look at organs and tissues inside the body to check for abnormal areas. For salivary gland cancer, an endoscope is inserted into the mouth to look at the mouth, throat, and larynx. An endoscope is a thin, tube-like instrument with a light and a lens for viewing.

MRI

Biopsy: The removal of cells or tissues so they can be viewed under a microscope by a pathologist to check for signs of cancer.

Fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy: The removal of tissue or fluid using a thin needle. An FNA is the most common type of biopsy used for salivary gland cancer, and has been shown to produce accurate results when differentiating between benign and malignant tumours.

Radiographs: An OPG (orthopantomogram) can be taken to rule out mandibular involvement. A chest radiograph may also be taken to rule out any secondary tumours.

Ultrasound: Ultrasound can be used to initially assess a tumour that is located superficially in either the submandibular or parotid gland. It can distinguish an intrinsic from an extrinsic neoplasm. Ultrasonic images of malignant tumours include ill defined margins.

HGPIN is diagnosed from tissue by a pathologist, which may come from:

- a needle biopsy taken via the rectum and,

- surgical removal of prostate tissue:

- transurethral resection of the prostate - removal of extra prostate tissue to improve urination (a treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia),

- radical prostatectomy - complete removal of prostate and seminal vesicles (a treatment for prostate cancer).

Blood tests for prostate specific antigen (PSA), digital rectal examination, ultrasound scanning of the prostate via the rectum, fine needle aspiration or medical imaging studies (such as magnetic resonance imaging) are "not" useful for diagnosing HGPIN.

HGPIN in isolation does not require treatment. In prostate biopsies it is not predictive of prostate cancer in one year if the prostate was well-sampled, i.e. if there were 8 or more cores.

The exact timing of repeat biopsies remains an area of controversy, as the time required for, and probability of HGPIN transformations to prostate cancer are not well understood.

Bartholin glands were described in cattle by Casper Barthlin in 1677. Their existence in humans was postulated at that time.

Treatment can be a vulvectomy that results in the removal of the growth along with an extensive removal of adjacent tissue. An iguinal lympenectomy often accompanies the vulvectomy. The tissue that is removed sometimes includes sections of the vagina and rectum.

The Adenoid cystic carcinoma of the Bartholin gland is another uncommon malignancy with symptoms that include local painful intermittent recurrences. The disease is slow to progress but it can result in lung cancer after a long time after the initial treatment. Treatment consists of surgical removal of the growth. Sometimes radiation and chemotherapy is performed.

It is important to exclude a tumor which is directly extending into the ear canal from the parotid salivary gland, especially when dealing with an adenoid cystic or mucoepidermoid carcinoma. This can be eliminated by clinical or imaging studies. Otherwise, the histologic differential diagnosis includes a ceruminous adenoma (a benign ceruminous gland tumor) or a neuroendocrine adenoma of the middle ear (middle ear adenoma).

Overall, five-year survival rates for vulvar cancer are around 78% but may be affected by individual factors including cancer stage, cancer type, patient age and general medical health. Five-year survival is greater than 90% for patients with stage I lesions but decreases to 20% when pelvic lymph nodes are involved. Lymph node involvement is the most important predictor of prognosis. Thus, early diagnosis is important.

Anatomical staging supplemented preclinical staging starting in 1988. FIGO’s revised TNM classification system uses tumor size (T), lymph node involvement (N) and presence or absence of metastasis (M) as criteria for staging. Stages I and II describe the early stages of vulvar cancer that still appear to be confined to the site of origin. Stage III cancers include greater disease extension to neighboring tissues and inguinal lymph nodes on one side. Stage IV indicates metastatic disease to inguinal nodes on both sides or distant metastases.

The MACIS system of estimating the prognosis of papillary thyroid cancer was developed by Clive S. Grant at the Mayo Clinic, and was based on careful evaluation of a large group of patients. It is probably the most reliable staging method available.

It assigns scores to the main factors involved, and uses the sum of this score to calculate the prognosis:

Most patients fall into the low-risk category (MACIS score less than 6.0) and are cured of the cancer at the time of surgery.

Children with multiple lung metastases and/or a miliary aspect still have an excellent long-term prognosis if given adequate treatment.

Diagnosis of endometrial hyperplasia can be made by endometrial biopsy, which is done in the office setting or through curettage of the uterine cavity to obtain endometrial tissue for histopathologic analysis. A workup for endometrial disease may be prompted by abnormal uterine bleeding, or the presence of atypical glandular cells on a pap smear.

The diagnosis of nipple discharge will be determined upon an examination by a health provider who will ask questions about symptoms and medical history. Tests that may be done include:

- Prolactin blood test

- Thyroid blood tests

- Head CT scan or MRI to look for pituitary tumor

- Mammography

- Ultrasound of the breast

- Breast biopsy

- Ductography or ductogram: an x-ray with contrast dye injected into the affected milk duct

- Skin biopsy, if Paget disease is a concern

Primary treatment for this cancer, regardless of body site, is surgical removal with clean margins. This surgery can prove challenging in the head and neck region due to this tumour's tendency to spread along nerve tracts. Adjuvant or palliative radiotherapy is commonly given following surgery. For advanced major and minor salivary gland tumors that are inoperable, recurrent, or exhibit gross residual disease after surgery, fast neutron therapy is widely regarded as the most effective form of treatment.

Chemotherapy is used for metastatic disease. Chemotherapy is considered on a case by case basis, as there is limited trial data on the positive effects of chemotherapy. Clinical studies are ongoing, however.

Most of the time, nipple problems are not breast cancer. These problems will either go away with the right treatment, or they can be watched closely over time.

Thyroglobulin can be used as a tumor marker for well-differentiated papillary thyroid cancer. HBME-1 staining may be useful for differentiating papillary carcinomas from follicular carcinomas; in papillary lesions it tends to be positive.

Reduced expression of ATP5E is significantly associated with the diagnosis of papillary thyroid cancer and may serve as an early tumor marker of the disease.

Treatment may include the following:

- Surgery with or without radiation

- Radiotherapy

Fast neutron therapy has been used successfully to treat salivary gland tumors, and has shown to be significantly more effective than photons in studies treating unresectable salivary gland tumors.

- Chemotherapy

Though Bartholin gland carcinoma is rare, along with other unusual Bartholin gland growths, it many not be the typical practice for clinicians to consider lesions malignant. Early diagnosis can help to prevent the cancer from the glands to surrounding. Though malignancies of the Bartholin gland are rare clinicians biopsy Bartholin gland lesions in older women or when the growth reoccurs or does not respond to original treatment.

Patients are usually managed by a multidisciplinary team including surgeons, gynecologists, and dermatologists because of the complex nature of this disorder. Follow-up for the increased risk of breast cancer risk includes monthly breast self-examination, annual breast examination, and mammography at age 30 or five years earlier than the youngest age of breast cancer in the family. The magnitude of the risk of breast cancer justifies routine screening with breast MRI as per published guidelines.

A meta analysis of cohort studies of alcohol consumption and breast cancer mortality showed no association between alcohol consumption before or after breast cancer diagnosis and recurrence after treatment.

Diagnosis is primarily performed via fine needle aspiration of the lesion of the thyroid to distinguish it from other types of thyroid lesions. Microscopic examination will show amyloid and hyperplasia of parafollicular C cells.

While the increased serum concentration of calcitonin is not harmful, it is useful as a marker which can be tested in blood.

A second marker, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), also produced by medullary thyroid carcinoma, is released into the blood and it is useful as a serum or blood tumor marker. In general, measurement of serum CEA is less sensitive than serum calcitonin for detecting the presence of a tumor, but has less minute to minute variability and is therefore useful as an indicator of tumor mass.

Parathyroid carcinoma is sometimes diagnosed during surgery for primary hyperparathyroidism. If the surgeon suspects carcinoma based on severity or invasion of surrounding tissues by a firm parathyroid tumor, aggressive excision is performed, including the thyroid and surrounding tissues as necessary.

Agents such as calcimimetics (for example, cinacalcet) are used to mimic calcium and are able to activate the parathyroid calcium-sensing receptor (making the parathyroid gland "think" we have more calcium than we actually do), therefore lowering the calcium level, in an attempt to decrease the hypercalcemia.

Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC) is a cheap, simple, and safe method in obtaining cytological specimens for diagnosis by using a needle and a syringe. The "Bethesda System for Reporting Thyroid Cytopathology" is the system used to report whether the thyroid cytological specimen is benign or malignant. It can be divided into six categories:

Repeated FNAC is recommended for Category I, followed by clinical follow-up in Category II, repeat FNAC for Category III, and lobectomy for Category IV, near total-thyroidectomy/lobectomy for Category V, and near total thyroidectomy for Category VI. The risk of malignancy in a malignant FNAC report is 93.7% while for suspicious FNAC report, it is 18.9%.

Wide, radical, complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice, with free surgical margins to achieve the best outcome and lowest chance of recurrence. Radiation is only used for palliation. In general, there is a good prognosis, although approximately 50% of patients die from disease within 3–10 years of presentation.

Detection of any metastases of thyroid cancer can be performed with a full body scintigraphy using iodine-131.