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Diagnosis of EIN lesions is of clinical importance because of the increased risk of coexisting (39% of women with EIN will be diagnosed with carcinoma within one year) or future (the long term endometrial cancer risk is 45 times greater for a woman with EIN compared to one with only a benign endometrial histology) endometrial cancer. Diagnostic terminology is that used by pathologists, physicians who diagnose human disease by examination of histologic preparations of excised tissues. Critical distinctions in EIN diagnosis are separation from benign conditions such as benign endometrial hyperplasia (a field effect in endometrial tissue caused by excessive stimulation by the hormone estrogen), and cancer.
The spectrum of disease which must be distinguished from EIN (Table II) includes benign endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma:
Table II: Disease classes that need to be distinguished from EIN.
EIN may be diagnosed by a trained pathologist by examination of tissue sections of the endometrium. All of the following diagnostic criteria must be met in a single area of one tissue fragment to make the diagnosis (Table III).
Table III: EIN diagnosis.
There are many diagnostic methods that can be used to determine the type of salivary gland tumour and if it is benign or malignant. Examples of diagnostic methods include:
Physical exam and history: An exam of the body to check general signs of health. The head, neck, mouth, and throat will be checked for signs of disease, such as lumps or anything else that seems unusual. A history of the patient's health habits and past illnesses and treatments will also be taken.
Endoscopy: A procedure to look at organs and tissues inside the body to check for abnormal areas. For salivary gland cancer, an endoscope is inserted into the mouth to look at the mouth, throat, and larynx. An endoscope is a thin, tube-like instrument with a light and a lens for viewing.
MRI
Biopsy: The removal of cells or tissues so they can be viewed under a microscope by a pathologist to check for signs of cancer.
Fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy: The removal of tissue or fluid using a thin needle. An FNA is the most common type of biopsy used for salivary gland cancer, and has been shown to produce accurate results when differentiating between benign and malignant tumours.
Radiographs: An OPG (orthopantomogram) can be taken to rule out mandibular involvement. A chest radiograph may also be taken to rule out any secondary tumours.
Ultrasound: Ultrasound can be used to initially assess a tumour that is located superficially in either the submandibular or parotid gland. It can distinguish an intrinsic from an extrinsic neoplasm. Ultrasonic images of malignant tumours include ill defined margins.
It is important to exclude a tumor which is directly extending into the ear canal from the parotid salivary gland, especially when dealing with an adenoid cystic or mucoepidermoid carcinoma. This can be eliminated by clinical or imaging studies. Otherwise, the histologic differential diagnosis includes a ceruminous adenoma (a benign ceruminous gland tumor) or a neuroendocrine adenoma of the middle ear (middle ear adenoma).
Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms can come to clinical attention in a variety of different ways. The most common symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. The most common signs patients have when they come to medical attention include jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and eyes caused by obstruction of the bile duct), weight loss, and acute pancreatitis. These signs and symptoms are not specific for an intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm, making it more difficult to establish a diagnosis. Doctors will therefore often order additional tests.
Once a doctor has reason to believe that a patient may have an intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm, he or she can confirm that suspicion using one of a number of imaging techniques. These include computerized tomography (CT), endoscopic ultrasound (EUS), and magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). These tests will reveal dilatation of the pancreatic duct or one of the branches of the pancreatic duct. In some cases a fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. Fine needle aspiration biopsy can be performed through an endoscope at the time of endoscopic ultrasound, or it can be performed through the skin using a needle guided by ultrasound or CT scanning.
IPMN forms cysts (small cavities or spaces) in the pancreas. These cysts are visible in CT scans (X-ray computed tomography). However, many pancreatic cysts are benign (see Pancreatic disease).
A growing number of patients are now being diagnosed before they develop symptoms (asymptomatic patients). In these cases, the lesion in the pancreas is discovered accidentally (by chance) when the patient is being scanned (i.e. undergoing an ultrasound, CT or MRI scan) for another reason. Up to 6% of patients undergoing pancreatic resection did so for treatment of incidental IPMNs.
In 2011, scientists at Johns Hopkins reported that they have developed a gene-based test that can be used to distinguish harmless from precancerous pancreatic cysts. The test may eventually help patients with harmless cysts avoid needless surgery. Bert Vogelstein and his colleagues discovered that almost all of the precancerous cysts (intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms) of the pancreas have mutations in the KRAS and/or the GNAS gene. The researchers then tested a total of 132 intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms for mutations in KRAS and GNAS. Nearly all (127) had mutations in GNAS, KRAS or both. Next, the investigators tested harmless cysts such as serous cystadenomas, and the harmless cysts did not have GNAS or KRAS mutations. Larger numbers of patients must be studied before the gene-based test can be widely offered.
Gonadoblastomas can contain elements of both germ cells and gonadal stroma.
Formerly, gonadoblastoma was sometimes regarded as a subset of dysgerminoma. In modern literature, it is sometimes considered to progress to dysgerminoma.
Serous cystic neoplasms can come to clinical attention in a variety of ways. The most common symptoms are very non-specific and include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. In contrast to many of the other tumors of the pancreas, patients rarely develop jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and eyes caused by obstruction of the bile duct), or weight loss. These signs and symptoms are not specific for a serous cystic neoplasm, making it more difficult to establish a diagnosis. Doctors will therefore often order additional tests.
Once a doctor has reason to believe that a patient may have serous cystic neoplasm, he or she can confirm that suspicion using one of a number of imaging techniques. These include computerized tomography (CT), endoscopic ultrasound (EUS), and magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). These tests will reveal a cystic mass within the pancreas. The cysts do not communicate with the larger pancreatic ducts. In some cases a fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. Fine needle aspiration biopsy can be performed through an endoscope at the time of endoscopic ultrasound, or it can be performed through the skin using a needle guided by ultrasound or CT scanning.
A growing number of patients are now being diagnosed before they develop symptoms (asymptomatic patients). In these cases, the lesion in the pancreas is discovered accidentally (by chance) when the patient is being scanned (x-rayed) for another reason.
Standard treatment would include surgical exploration via laparotomy. Laparoscopy may be an option if the surgeon is particularly skilled in removing ovarian neoplasms via laparoscopy intact. If the diagnosis of gonadoblastoma is certain, a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (BSO) should be performed to remove both the primary tumor and the dysgenic contralateral ovary. If uninvolved, the uterus should be left intact. Modern reproductive endocrinology technology allows patients post BSO to achieve pregnancy via in-vitro fertilization (IVF) with a donor egg.
The 1997 International Germ Cell Consensus Classification is a tool for estimating the risk of relapse after treatment of malignant germ cell tumor.
A small study of ovarian tumors in girls reports a correlation between cystic and benign tumors and, conversely, solid and malignant tumors. Because the cystic extent of a tumor can be estimated by ultrasound, MRI, or CT scan before surgery, this permits selection of the most appropriate surgical plan to minimize risk of spillage of a malignant tumor.
Access to appropriate treatment has a large effect on outcome. A 1993 study of outcomes in Scotland found that for 454 men with non-seminomatous (non-germinomatous) germ cell tumors diagnosed between 1975 and 1989, 5-year survival increased over time and with earlier diagnosis. Adjusting for these and other factors, survival was 60% higher for men treated in a cancer unit that treated the majority of these men, even though the unit treated more men with the worst prognosis.
Choriocarcinoma of the testicles has the worst prognosis of all germ cell cancers
The average age at time of EIN diagnosis is approximately 52 years, compared to approximately 61 years for carcinoma. The timeframe and likelihood of EIN progression to cancer, however, is not constant amongst all women. Some cases of EIN are first detected as residual premalignant disease in women who already have carcinoma, whereas other EIN lesions disappear entirely and never lead to cancer. For this reason, treatment benefits and risks must be individualized for each patient under the guidance of an experienced physician.
Risk factors for development of EIN and the endometrioid type of endometrial carcinoma include exposure to estrogens without opposing progestins, obesity, diabetes, and rare hereditary conditions such as hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer. Protective factors include use of combined oral contraceptive pills (low dose estrogen and progestin), and prior use of a contraceptive intrauterine device.
The treatment is simple excision and exclusion of a malignant neoplasm.
A gonadal tissue neoplasm is a tumor having any histology characteristic of cells or tissues giving rise to the gonads. These tissues arise from the sex cord and stromal cells. The tumor may be derived from these tissues, or produce them.
Although the tumor is composed of gonadal tissue, it is not necessarily located in an ovary or testicle.
A gonadal tissue neoplasm should not be confused with a urogenital neoplasm, though the two topics are often studied together. The embryology of the gonads is only indirectly related to the embryology of the external genitals and urinary system.
Women with benign germ cell tumors such as mature teratomas (dermoid cysts) are cured by ovarian cystectomy or oophorectomy. In general, all patients with malignant germ cell tumors will have the same staging surgery that is done for epithelial ovarian cancer. If the patient is in her reproductive years, an alternative is unilateral salpingoophorectomy, while the uterus, the ovary, and the fallopian tube on the opposite side can be left behind. This isn't an option when the cancer is in both ovaries. If the patient has finished having children, the surgery involves complete staging including salpingoophorectomy on both sides as well as hysterectomy.
Most patients with germ cell cancer will need to be treated with combination chemotherapy for at least 3 cycles. The chemotherapy regimen most commonly used in germ cell tumors is called PEB (or BEP), and consists of bleomycin, etoposide, a platinum-based antineoplastic (cisplatin).
A urogenital neoplasm is a tumor of the urogenital system.
Types include:
- Cancer of the breast and female genital organs: (Breast cancer, Vulvar cancer, Vaginal cancer, Cervical cancer, Uterine cancer, Endometrial cancer, Ovarian cancer)
- Cancer of the male genital organs (Carcinoma of the penis, Prostate cancer, Testicular cancer)
- Cancer of the urinary organs (Renal cell carcinoma, Bladder cancer)
They are benign lesions and malignant degeneration is rare. They are usually treated with curettage which however have a high recurrence rate of 25%. As such if an en-bloc resection is possible this is advisable
The treatment of choice for main-duct IPMNs is resection due to approximately 50% chance of malignancy. Side-branch IPMNs are occasionally monitored with regular CT or MRIs, but most are eventually resected, with a 30% rate of malignancy in these resected tumors. Survival 5 years after resection of an IPMN without malignancy is approximately 80%, 85% with malignancy but no lymph node spread and 0% with malignancy spreading to lymph nodes. Surgery can include the removal of the head of the pancreas (a pancreaticoduodenectomy), removal of the body and tail of the pancreas (a distal pancreatectomy), or rarely removal of the entire pancreas (a total pancreatectomy). In selected cases the surgery can be performed using minimally invasive techniques such as laparoscopy or robotic surgery. A study using Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Result Registry (SEER) data suggested that increased lymph node counts harvested during the surgery were associated with better survival in invasive IPMN patients.
Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice, associated with an excellent long term clinical outcome.
Wide, radical, complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice, with free surgical margins to achieve the best outcome and lowest chance of recurrence. Radiation is only used for palliation. In general, there is a good prognosis, although approximately 50% of patients die from disease within 3–10 years of presentation.
These lesions rarely require surgery unless they are symptomatic or the diagnosis is in question. Since these lesions do not have malignant potential, long-term observation is unnecessary. Surgery can include the removal of the head of the pancreas (a pancreaticoduodenectomy), removal of the body and tail of the pancreas (a distal pancreatectomy), or rarely removal of the entire pancreas (a total pancreatectomy). In selected cases the surgery can be performed using minimally invasive techniques such as laparoscopy.
Appearance and location of the tumor is enough to identify it as a mammary tumor. Biopsy will give type and invasiveness of the tumor. In addition, newer studies showed that certain gene expression patterns are associated with malignant behaviour of canine mammary tumors.
Surgical removal is the treatment of choice, but chest x-rays should be taken first to rule out metastasis. Removal should be with wide margins to prevent recurrence, taking the whole mammary gland if necessary. Because 40 to 50 percent of dog mammary tumors have estrogen receptors, spaying is recommended by many veterinarians. A recent study showed a better prognosis in dogs that are spayed at the time of surgery or that had been recently spayed. However, several other studies found no improvement of disease outcome when spaying was performed after the tumor had developed. Chemotherapy is rarely used.
Treatment may include the following:
- Surgery with or without radiation
- Radiotherapy
Fast neutron therapy has been used successfully to treat salivary gland tumors, and has shown to be significantly more effective than photons in studies treating unresectable salivary gland tumors.
- Chemotherapy
Plain film
often seen as a lobulated, eccentric radiolucent lesion
long axis parallel to long axis of long bone
no periosteal reaction (unless a complicating fracture present)
geographic bone destruction: almost 100%
well defined sclerotic margin: 86%
there can be presence of septations (pseudotrabeculation): 57% 2
there can be presence of matrix calcification in a small proportion of cases: 12.5%1
MRI
MR features are often not particularly specific. Signal characteristics include
T1 - low signal
T1 C+ (Gd) -
the majority (~70%) tend to show peripheral nodular enhancement
~ 30% diffuse contrast enhancement and this can be either homogeneous or heterogeneous 19
T2 - high signal
Bone scan
A scintigraphic "doughnut sign" has been described in this tumour type 11. However, this is very non-specific and can be found in a plethora of other bone lesions.
The most common presentation of testicular cancer is a hard, painless lump which can be felt on one of the testis. It is either noticed by a clinician during a routine examination, or the patient themselves. Risk factors for TC include:
- Cryptorchidism
- Family history
- Previous testicular cancer
- Being white
The diagnosis is confirmed in different ways. An ultrasound scan can be used to diagnose to a 90-95% accuracy. Bloods can also be taken to look for elevated tumour markers which is also used to analyse the patient’s response to treatment. 80% of testicular cancer cases are from the 20-34 year old age range
It is important to separate hiberoma from adult rhabdomyoma, a granular cell tumor and a true liposarcoma.
Typically self-examination leads to the detection of a lump in the breast which requires further investigation. Other less common symptoms include nipple discharge, nipple retraction. swelling of the breast, or a skin lesion such as an ulcer. Ultrasound and mammography may be used for its further definition. The lump can be examined either by a needle biopsy where a thin needle is placed into the lump to extract some tissue or by an excisional biopsy where under local anesthesia a small skin cut is made and the lump is removed. Not all palpable lesions in the male breast are cancerous, for instance a biopsy may reveal a benign fibroadenoma. In a larger study from Finland the average size of a male breast cancer lesion was 1.8 cm. Beside the histologic examination estrogen and progesterone receptor studies are performed. Further, the HER2 test is used to check for a growth factor protein. Its activity can be increased in active cancer cells and helps determine if monoclonal antibody therapy (i.e. Trastuzumab) may be useful.
Male breast cancer can recur locally after therapy, or can become metastatic.
Acrospiroma (also known as hidradenoma) is a cutaneous condition, primarily occurring in adult women, that is a form of benign adnexal neoplasm closely related to poroma.