There are divergent views as to whether everyone with an unprovoked episode of thrombosis should be investigated for thrombophilia. Even those with a form of thrombophilia may not necessarily be at risk of further thrombosis, while recurrent thrombosis is more likely in those who have had previous thrombosis even in those who have no detectable thrombophilic abnormalities. Recurrent thromboembolism, or thrombosis in unusual sites (e.g. the hepatic vein in Budd-Chiari syndrome), is a generally accepted indication for screening. It is more likely to be cost-effective in people with a strong personal or family history of thrombosis. In contrast, the combination of thrombophilia with other risk factors may provide an indication for preventative treatment, which is why thrombophilia testing may be performed even in those who would not meet the strict criteria for these tests. Searching for a coagulation abnormality is not normally undertaken in patients in whom thrombosis has an obvious trigger. For example, if the thrombosis is due to immobilization after recent orthopedic surgery, it is regarded as "provoked" by the immobilization and the surgery and it is less likely that investigations will yield clinically important results.

When venous thromboembolism occurs when a patient is experiencing transient major risk factors such as prolonged immobility, surgery, or trauma, testing for thrombophilia is not appropriate because the outcome of the test would not change a patient's indicated treatment. In 2013, the American Society of Hematology, as part of recommendations in the Choosing Wisely campaign, cautioned against overuse of thrombophilia screening; false positive results of testing would lead to people inappropriately being labeled as having thrombophilia, and being treated with anticoagulants without clinical need

In the United Kingdom, professional guidelines give specific indications for thrombophilia testing. It is recommended that testing be done only after appropriate counseling, and hence the investigations are usually not performed at the time when thrombosis is diagnosed but at a later time. In particular situations, such as retinal vein thrombosis, testing is discouraged altogether because thrombophilia is not regarded as a major risk factor. In other rare conditions generally linked with hypercoagulability, such as cerebral venous thrombosis and portal vein thrombosis, there is insufficient data to state for certain whether thrombophilia screening is helpful, and decisions on thrombophilia screening in these conditions are therefore not regarded as evidence-based. If cost-effectiveness (quality-adjusted life years in return for expenditure) is taken as a guide, it is generally unclear whether thrombophilia investigations justify the often high cost, unless the testing is restricted to selected situations.

Recurrent miscarriage is an indication for thrombophilia screening, particularly antiphospholipid antibodies (anti-cardiolipin IgG and IgM, as well as lupus anticoagulant), factor V Leiden and prothrombin mutation, activated protein C resistance and a general assessment of coagulation through an investigation known as thromboelastography.

Women who are planning to use oral contraceptives do not benefit from routine screening for thrombophilias, as the absolute risk of thrombotic events is low. If either the woman or a first-degree relative has suffered from thrombosis, the risk of developing thrombosis is increased. Screening this selected group may be beneficial, but even when negative may still indicate residual risk. Professional guidelines therefore suggest that alternative forms of contraception be used rather than relying on screening.

Thrombophilia screening in people with arterial thrombosis is generally regarded unrewarding and is generally discouraged, except possibly for unusually young patients (especially when precipitated by smoking or use of estrogen-containing hormonal contraceptives) and those in whom revascularization, such as coronary arterial bypass, fails because of rapid occlusion of the graft.

The diagnosis for deficiency of protein S can be done via reviewing family history of condition and genetic testing, as well as the following:

- Protein S antigen test

- Coagulation test (prothrombin time test)

- Thrombotic disease investigation

- Factor V Leiden test

Blood tests are neede to differentiate FVII deficiency from other bleeding disorders. Typical is a discordance between the prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and normal levels for the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). FVII levels are <10IU/dl in homozygous individuals, and between 20-60 in heterozygous carriers. The FCVII: C assay supports the diagnosis.

The FVII gene (F7) is found on chromosome 13q34. Heterogeneous mutations have been described in FVII deficient patients.

Diagnosis of inherited hypoprothrombinemia, relies heavily on a patient's medical history, family history of bleeding issues, and lab exams performed by a hematologist. A physical examination by a general physician should also be performed in order to determine whether the condition is congenital or acquired, as well as ruling out other possible conditions with similar symptoms. For acquired forms, information must be taken regarding current diseases and medications taken by the patient, if applicable.

Lab tests that are performed to determine diagnosis:

1. Factor Assays: To observe the performance of specific factors (II) to identify missing/poorly performing factors. These lab tests are typically performed first in order to determine the status of the factor.

2. Prothrombin Blood Test: Determines if patient has deficient or low levels of Factor II.

3. Vitamin K1 Test: Performed to evaluate bleeding of unknown causes, nosebleeds, and identified bruising. To accomplish this, a band is wrapped around the patient's arm, 4 inches above the superficial vein site in the elbow pit. The vein is penetrated with the needle and amount of blood required for testing is obtained. Decreased vitamin K levels are suggestive of hypoprothrombinemia. However, this exam is rarely used as a Prothrombin Blood Test is performed beforehand.

In terms of treatment for protein S deficiency the following are consistent with the "management" (and administration of) individuals with this condition ( it should be noted that the prognosis for "inherited" homozygotes is usually in line with a higher incidence of thrombosis for the affected individual):

A 28 month old girl, showed symptoms from 8 months of age and consisted of complaints of painful bruises over lower limbs, and disturbed, painful sleep at night. Family history revealed older brother also suffered similar problems and died at age of two years possibly due to bleeding - no diagnosis was confirmed. Complete blood count and blood smear was determined as normal. No abnormality in fibrinogen, liver function test, and bleeding time. However, prothrombin levels were less than 1% so patient was transfused with fresh frozen plasma (FFP). Post transfusion methods, patient is now 28 months old and living healthy life. The only treatment that is needed to date is for the painful bruises, which the patient is given FFP every 5-6 weeks.

Twelve day old boy admitted for symptoms consisting of blood stained vomiting and dark colored stool. Upon admission into hospital, patient received vitamin K and FFP transfusion. No family history of similarity in symptoms that were presented. At 40 days old, patient showed symptoms of tonic posturing and constant vomiting. CT scan revealed subdural hemorrhage, and other testing showed low hb levels of 7%, platelets at 3.5 lakhs/cu mm. PT examination was 51 seconds and aPTT at 87 seconds. Prothrombin activity levels were less than 1%. All other exams revealed no abnormalities. Treatment methods included vitamin K and FFP, as well as ventilator support and packed red blood cell transfusion (PRBC). At half a year of age, condition consisted of possible poor neurological outcome secondary to CNS bleeding. Treatment of very frequent transfusion was needed for patient.

Recent study illustrated a patient with 2 weeks of continuous bleeding, with presence of epistaxis, melena, hematuria, and pruritic rash with no previous bleeding history. Vitals were all within normal range, however, presence of ecchymoses was visible in chest, back and upper areas. Lab exams revealed prolonged prothrombin time (PT) of 34.4 and acquired partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 81.7, as well as elevated liver function tests. Discontinuation of atorvastatin, caused liver enzymes to go back to normal. Treatment of vitamin K, antibiotics, and fresh frozen plasma (FFP) did not have an impact on coagulopathy. Mixing of PT and aPTT was performed in order to further evaluate coagulopathy and revealed no correction. Factor activity assays were performed to determine the presence of a specific one. Testing revealed that factor II activity could not be quantified. Further studies showed that acquired factor II inhibitor was present without the lupus anticoagulant, with no clear cause associated with the condition. Aimed to control bleeding and getting rid of the inhibitor through directly treating the underlying disease or through immunosuppressive therapy. Corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulin improved the PT and aPTT. Did not improve bleeding conditions until treatment of transfusion with activated PCC. Treatment of inhibitor required Rituximab, which was shown to increase factor II levels to 264%. Study shows that when a patient with no history of coagulopathy presents themselves with hemorrhagic diathesis, direct testing of a factor II inhibitor should be performed initially.

Tests for thrombophilia include complete blood count (with examination of the blood film), prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, thrombodynamics test, thrombin time and reptilase time, lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardiolipin antibody, anti-β2 glycoprotein 1 antibody, activated protein C resistance, fibrinogen tests, factor V Leiden and prothrombin mutation, and basal homocysteine levels. Testing may be more or less extensive depending on clinical judgement and abnormalities detected on initial evaluation.

For hereditary cases, the patient must have at least 2 abnormal tests plus family history.

There are several treatments available for factor VII deficiency; they all replace deficient FVII.

1. Recombinant FVIIa concentrate (rFVIIa) is a recombinant treatment that is highly effective and has no risk of fluid overload or viral disease. It may be the optimal therapy.

2. Plasma derived Factor VII concentrate (pdFVII) : This treatment is suitable for surgery but can lead to thrombosis. It is virus attenuated.

3. Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) containing factor VII: this treatment is suitable for surgery, but has a risk of thrombosis. It is virus attenuated.

4. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP): This is relatively inexpensive and readily available. While effective this treatment carries a risk of blood-borne viruses and fluid overload.

In general, the indications for anticoagulation during pregnancy are the same as the general population. This includes (but is not limited to) a recent history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism, a metallic prosthetic heart valve, and atrial fibrillation in the setting of structural heart disease.

In addition to these indications, anticoagulation may be of benefit in individuals with lupus erythematosus, individuals who have a history of DVT or PE associated with a previous pregnancy, and even with individuals with a history of coagulation factor deficiencies and DVT not associated with a previous pregnancy.

In pregnant women with a history of recurrent miscarriage, anticoagulation seems to increase the live birth rate among those with antiphospholipid syndrome and perhaps those with congenital thrombophilia but not in those with unexplained recurrent miscarriage.

Antiphospholipid syndrome is tested for in the laboratory using both liquid phase coagulation assays (lupus anticoagulant) and solid phase ELISA assays (anti-cardiolipin antibodies).

Genetic thrombophilia is part of the differential diagnosis of APS and can coexist in some APS patients. Presence of genetic thrombophilia may determine the need for anticoagulation therapy. Thus genetic thrombophilia screening can consist of:

- Further studies for factor V Leiden variant and the prothrombin G20210A mutation, factor VIII levels, MTHFR mutation.

- Levels of protein C, free and total protein S, factor VIII, antithrombin, plasminogen, tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) and plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1)

The testing of antibodies to the possible individual targets of aPL such as β glycoprotein 1 and antiphosphatidyl serine is currently under debate as testing for anticardiolipin appears to be currently sensitive and specific for diagnosis of APS even though cardiolipin is not considered an in vivo target for antiphospholipid antibodies.

The amount of fresh frozen plasma required to reverse disseminated intravascular coagulation associated with purpura fulminans may lead to complications of fluid overload and death, especially in neonates, such as transfusion-related acute lung injury. Exposure to multiple plasma donors over time increases the cumulative risk for transfusion-associated viral infection and allergic reaction to donor proteins found in fresh frozen plasma.

Allergic reactions and alloantibody formation are also potential complications, as with any protein replacement therapy.

Concomitant warfarin therapy in subjects with congenital protein C deficiency is associated with an increased risk of warfarin skin necrosis.

There are several treatments available for bleeding due to factor X deficiency, however a specifi FX concentrate is not available (2009).

1. Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) supplies FX with a risk of thrombosis.

2. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP): This is relatively inexpensive and readily available. While effective this treatment carries a risk of blood-borne viruses and fluid overload.

3. If vitamin K levels are low, vitamin K can be supplied orally or parenterally.

Treatment of FX deficiency in amyloidosis may be more complex and involve surgery (splenectomy) and chemotherapy.

Blood tests are needed to differentiate FX deficiency from other bleeding disorders. Typical are normal thrombin time, prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and prolonged partial thromboplastin time(PTT). FX antigen and its coagulant activity can be used to classify the severity of the condition:

1. Type I has low levels of FX antigen and activity.

2. Type II has low coagulant activity but normal or borderline FX antigen levels.

The FX (F10) gene is found on chromosome 13q34. Heterogeneous mutations have been described in FX deficient patients.

The cardinal features of purpura investigations are the same as those of disseminated intravascular coagulation: prolonged plasma clotting times, thrombocytopenia, reduced plasma fibrinogen concentration, increased plasma fibrin-degradation products and occasionally microangiopathic haemolysis.

Anti-cardiolipin antibodies can be detected using an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) immunological test, which screens for the presence of βglycoprotein 1 dependent anticardiolipin antibodies (ACA).

A low platelet count and positivity for antibodies against β-glycoprotein 1 or phosphatidylserine may also be observed in a positive diagnosis.

Prevention of DVT and other types of venous thrombosis may be required if certain predisposing risk factors are present. One example from Sweden is based on the point system below, where points are summed to give the appropriate prophylaxis regimen.

After adding any risk factors together, a total of one point or less indicates no preventive action is needed. A total of two points indicates short-term prophylaxis, e.g. with LMWH, may be used in temporary risk factors, as well as administering prophylactic treatment seven days postpartum, starting a couple of hours after birth. A total of 3 points increases the necessary duration of "post partum" prophylaxis to six weeks.

A risk score of four points or higher means prophylaxis in the "ante partum" period is needed, as well as at least six weeks "post partum". A previous distal DVT indicates a minimum of 12 weeks (three months) of therapeutic anticoagulation therapy. A previous proximal DVT or pulmonary embolism requires a minimum of 26 weeks (6.5 months) of therapy If the therapy duration reaches delivery time, the remaining duration may be given after delivery, possibly extending the minimum of six weeks of "post partum" therapy. In a very high risk, high-dose "ante partum" prophylaxis should be continued at least 12 weeks after delivery.

Women with antiphospholipid syndrome should have an additional low-dose prophylactic treatment of aspirin.

When Budd–Chiari syndrome is suspected, measurements are made of liver enzyme levels and other organ markers (creatinine, urea, electrolytes, LDH).

Budd–Chiari syndrome is most commonly diagnosed using ultrasound studies of the abdomen and retrograde angiography. Ultrasound may show obliteration of hepatic veins, thrombosis or stenosis, spiderweb vessels, large collateral vessels, or a hyperechoic cord replacing a normal vein. Computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is sometimes employed although these methods are generally not as sensitive. Liver biopsy is nonspecific but sometimes necessary to differentiate between Budd–Chiari syndrome and other causes of hepatomegaly and ascites, such as galactosemia or Reye's syndrome.

D-dimers are a fibrin degradation product, and an elevated level can result from plasmin dissolving a clot—or other conditions. Hospitalized patients often have elevated levels for multiple reasons. When individuals are at a high-probability of having DVT, diagnostic imaging is preferred to a D-dimer test. For those with a low or moderate probability of DVT, a D-dimer level might be obtained, which excludes a diagnosis if results are normal. An elevated level requires further investigation with diagnostic imaging to confirm or exclude the diagnosis.

For a suspected first leg DVT in a low-probability situation, the American College of Chest Physicians recommends testing either D-dimer levels with moderate or high sensitivity or compression ultrasound of the proximal veins. These options are suggested over whole-leg ultrasound, and D-dimer testing is the suggested preference overall. The UK National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends D-dimer testing prior to proximal vein ultrasound.

For a suspected first leg DVT in a moderate-probability scenario, a high-sensitivity D-dimer is suggested as a recommended option over ultrasound imaging, with both whole-leg and compression ultrasound possible. The NICE guideline uses a two-point Wells score and does not refer to a moderate probability group.

The risk of VTE is increased in pregnancy by about five times because of a more hypercoagulable state, a likely adaptation against fatal postpartum hemorrhage. Additionally, pregnant women with genetic risk factors are subject to a roughly three to 30 times increased risk for VTE. Preventative treatments for pregnancy-related VTE in hypercoagulable women were suggested by the ACCP. Homozygous carriers of factor V Leiden or prothrombin G20210A with a family history of VTE were suggested for antepartum LMWH and either LMWH or a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) for the six weeks following childbirth. Those with another thrombophilia and a family history but no previous VTE were suggested for watchful waiting during pregnancy and LMWH or—for those without protein C or S deficiency—a VKA. Homozygous carriers of factor V Leiden or prothrombin G20210A with no personal or family history of VTE were suggested for watchful waiting during pregnancy and LMWH or a VKA for six weeks after childbirth. Those with another thrombophilia but no family or personal history of VTE were suggested for watchful waiting only. Warfarin, a common VKA, can cause harm to the fetus and is not used for VTE prevention during pregnancy.

Several studies have attempted to predict the survival of patients with Budd–Chiari syndrome. In general, nearly 2/3 of patients with Budd–Chiari are alive at 10 years. Important negative prognostic indicators include ascites, encephalopathy, elevated Child-Pugh scores, elevated prothrombin time, and altered serum levels of various substances (sodium, creatinine, albumin, and bilirubin). Survival is also highly dependent on the underlying cause of the Budd–Chiari syndrome. For example, a patient with an underlying myeloproliferative disorder may progress to acute leukemia, independently of Budd–Chiari syndrome.

The diagnosis is based on clinical features, with a concomitant decreased blood adenosine deaminase level supporting the diagnosis.

The diagnosis of glycogen storage disease IX consists of the following:

- Complete blood count

- Urinalysis

- Histological study of the liver (via biopsy)

- Genetic testing

- Physical exam

Laboratory tests might include: full blood count, liver enzymes, renal function and erythrocyte sedimentation rate.

If the cause for the high platelet count remains unclear, bone marrow biopsy is often undertaken, to differentiate whether the high platelet count is reactive or essential.

There are two types of this inherited condition, "glycogen storage disease IXa1" and "glycogen storage disease IXa2" that affect the liver of an individual. Mutations in PHKA2 have been seen in individuals with glycogen storage disease IXa2.

Individuals presenting with Type III galactosemia must consume a lactose- and galactose-restricted diet devoid of dairy products and mucilaginous plants. Dietary restriction is the only current treatment available for GALE deficiency. As glycoprotein and glycolipid metabolism generate endogenous galactose, however, Type III galactosemia may not be resolved solely through dietary restriction.