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Retinal detachment can be examined by fundus photography or ophthalmoscopy. Fundus photography generally needs a considerably larger instrument than the ophthalmoscope, but has the advantage of availing the image to be examined by a specialist at another location and/or time, as well as providing photo documentation for future reference. Modern fundus photographs generally recreate considerably larger areas of the fundus than what can be seen at any one time with handheld ophthalmoscopes.
Ultrasound has diagnostic accuracy similar to that of examination by an ophthalmologist. The recent meta-analysis shows the diagnostic accuracy of emergency department (ED) ocular ultrasonography is high. The sensitivity and specificity ranged from 97% to 100% and 83% to 100%. The typical feature of retinal detachment when viewed on ultrasound is "flying angel sign". It shows the detached retina moving with a fixed point under the B mode, linear probe 10 MHz.
A minority of retinal detachments result from trauma, including blunt blows to the orbit, penetrating trauma, and concussions to the head. A retrospective Indian study of more than 500 cases of rhegmatogenous detachments found that 11% were due to trauma, and that gradual onset was the norm, with over 50% presenting more than one month after the inciting injury.
Optic pits should be diagnosed by an eye care professional who can perform a thorough exam of the back of the eye using an ophthalmoscope.
More recently, the development of a special technology called optical coherence tomography (OCT) has allowed better visualization of the retinal layers. It has been used to demonstrate a marked reduction in the thickness of the retinal nerve fiber layer in the quadrant corresponding to the optic pit. This is not yet in standard use for diagnosis of an optic pit, but may be helpful in supporting a diagnosis.
This may be present in conditions causing traction on the retina especially at the macula. This may occur in:
a) The vitreomacular traction syndrome; b) Proliferative diabetic retinopathy with vitreoretinal traction; c) Atypical cases of impending macular hole.
Posterior Vitreous Detachment is diagnosed via dilated eye examination. For some patients the vitreous gel is extremely clear and so it can be hard to see the PVD. In these cases, additional imaging such as Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) or ocular ultrasound are used.
The diagnosis usually starts with a dilated examination of the retina, followed with confirmation by optical coherence tomography and fluorescein angiography. The angiography test will usually show one or more fluorescent spots with fluid leakage. In 10%-15% of the cases these will appear in a "classic" smoke stack shape. Differential diagnosis should be immediately performed to rule out retinal detachment, which is a medical emergency.
A clinical record should be taken to keep a timeline of the detachment. An Amsler grid can be useful in documenting the precise area of the visual field involved. The affected eye will sometimes exhibit a refractive spectacle prescription that is more far-sighted than the fellow eye due to the decreased focal length caused by the raising of the retina.
Indocyanine green angiography can be used to assess the health of the retina in the affected area which can be useful in making a treatment decision.
Retinoschisis involving the central part of the retina secondary to an optic disc pit was erroneously considered to be a serous retinal detachment until correctly described by Lincoff as retinoschisis. Significant visual loss may occur and following a period of observation for spontaneous resolution, treatment with temporal peripapillary laser photocoagulation followed by vitrectomy and gas injection followed by face-down positioning is very effective in treating this condition.
Imaging studies such as ultrasonography (US), Computerized Tomography (CT) and Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) can aid diagnosis. On ultrasound, Coats' disease appears as a hyperechoic mass in the posterior vitreous without posterior acoustic shadowing; vitreous and subretinal hemorrhage may often be observed.
On CT, the globe appears hyperdense compared to normal vitreous due to the proteinaceous exudate, which may obliterate the vitreous space in advanced disease. The anterior margin of the subretinal exudate enhances with contrast. Since the retina is fixed posteriorly at the optic disc, this enhancement has a V-shaped configuration.
On MRI, the subretinal exudate shows high signal intensity on both T1- and T2-weighted images. The exudate may appear heterogeneous if hemorrhage or fibrosis is present. The subretinal space does not enhance with gadolinium contrast. Mild to moderate linear enhancement may be seen between the exudate and the remaining vitreous. The exudate shows a large peak at 1-1.6 ppm on proton MR spectroscopy.
Controversies exist around eliminating this disorder from breeding Collies. Some veterinarians advocate only breeding dogs with no evidence of disease, but this would eliminate a large portion of potential breeding stock. Because of this, others recommend only breeding mildly affected dogs, but this would never completely eradicate the condition. Also, mild cases of choroidal hypoplasia may become pigmented and therefore undiagnosable by the age of three to seven months. If puppies are not checked for CEA before this happens, they may be mistaken for normal and bred as such. Checking for CEA by seven weeks of age can eliminate this possibility. Diagnosis is also difficult in dogs with coats of dilute color because lack of pigment in the choroid of these animals can be confused with choroidal hypoplasia. Also, because of the lack of choroidal pigment, mild choroidal hypoplasia is difficult to see, and therefore cases of CEA may be missed.
Until recently, the only way to know if a dog was a carrier was for it to produce an affected puppy. However, a genetic test for CEA became available at the beginning of 2005, developed by the Baker Institute for Animal Health, Cornell University, and administered through OptiGen. The test can determine whether a dog is affected, a carrier, or clear, and is therefore a useful tool in determining a particular dog's suitability for breeding.
Grossly, retinal detachment and yellowish subretinal exudate containing cholesterol crystals are commonly seen.
Microscopically, the wall of retinal vessels may be thickened in some cases, while in other cases the wall may be thinned with irregular dilatation of the lumen. The subretinal exudate consists of cholesterol crystals, macrophages laden with cholesterol and pigment, erythrocytes, and hemosiderin. A granulomatous reaction, induced by the exudate, may be seen with the retina. Portions of the retina may develop gliosis as a response to injury.
Therapy is not required or indicated in posterior vitreous detachment, unless there are associated retinal tears, which need to be repaired. In absence of retinal tears, the usual progress is that the vitreous humor will continue to age and liquefy and floaters will usually become less and less noticeable, and eventually most symptoms will completely disappear. Prompt examination of patients experiencing vitreous humor floaters combined with expeditious treatment of any retinal tears has been suggested as the most effective means of preventing certain types of retinal detachments.
The fundus exam via ophthalmoscopy is essentially normal early on in cone dystrophy, and definite macular changes usually occur well after visual loss. Fluorescein angiography (FA) is a useful adjunct in the workup of someone suspected to have cone dystrophy, as it may detect early changes in the retina that are too subtle to be seen by ophthalmoscope. For example, FA may reveal areas of hyperfluorescence, indicating that the RPE has lost some of its integrity, allowing the underlying fluorescence from the choroid to be more visible. These early changes are usually not detected during the ophthalmoscopic exam.
The most common type of macular lesion seen during ophthalmoscopic examination has a bull’s-eye appearance and consists of a doughnut-like zone of atrophic pigment epithelium surrounding a central darker area. In another, less frequent form of cone dystrophy there is rather diffuse atrophy of the posterior pole with spotty pigment clumping in the macular area. Rarely, atrophy of the choriocapillaris and larger choroidal vessels is seen in patients at an early stage. The inclusion of fluorescein angiography in the workup of these patients is important since it can help detect many of these characteristic ophthalmoscopic features. In addition to the retinal findings, temporal pallor of the optic disc is commonly observed.
As expected, visual field testing in cone dystrophy usually reveals a central scotoma. In cases with the typical bull’s-eye appearance, there is often relative central sparing.
Because of the wide spectrum of fundus changes and the difficulty in making the diagnosis in the early stages, electroretinography (ERG) remains the best test for making the diagnosis. Abnormal cone function on the ERG is indicated by a reduced single-flash and flicker response when the test is carried out in a well-lit room (photopic ERG). The relative sparing of rod function in cone dystrophy is evidenced by a normal scotopic ERG, i.e. when the test is carried out in the dark. In more severe or longer standing cases, the dystrophy involves a greater proportion of rods with resultant subnormal scotopic records. Since cone dystrophy is hereditary and can be asymptomatic early on in the disease process, ERG is an invaluable tool in the early diagnosis of patients with positive family histories.
Cone dystrophy in general usually occurs sporadically. Hereditary forms are usually autosomal dominant, and instances of autosomal recessive and X-linked inheritance also occur.
In the differential diagnosis, other macular dystrophies as well as the hereditary optic atrophies must be considered. Fluorescent angiography, ERG, and color vision tests are important tools to help facilitate diagnosis in early stages.
Barrage laser is at times done prophylactically around a hole or tear associated with lattice degeneration in an eye at risk of developing a retinal detachment. It is not known if surgical interventions such as laser photocoagulation or cryotherapy is effective in preventing retinal detachment in patients with lattice degeneration or "asymptomatic" retinal detachment. Laser photocoagulation has been shown to reduce risks of retinal detachment in "symptomatic" lattice degeneration. There are documented cases wherein retina detached from areas which were otherwise healthy despite being treated previously with laser.
The diagnosis of CMV retinitis can be done via the following:
- Ophthalmic screening frequency is based on CD4 count,(CD4 < 50 cells/mL, 0- 35% possibility of CMV retinitis)
- BUN
- CD8+ T-lymphocyte count
- CMV DNA capture ( polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test)
- DNA PCR ( ocular fluids)
- Viral load
- Complete blood count
Optic pits themselves do not need to be treated. However, patients should follow up with their eye care professional annually or even sooner if the patient notices any visual loss whatsoever. Treatment of PVD or serous retinal detachment will be necessary if either develops in a patient with an optic pit.
Patients with optic disc drusen should be monitored periodically for ophthalmoscopy, Snellen acuity, contrast sensitivity, color vision, intraocular pressure and threshold visual fields. For those with visual field defects optical coherence tomography has been recommended for follow up of nerve fiber layer thickness. Associated conditions such as angioid streaks and retinitis pigmentosa should be screened for. Both the severity of optic disc drusen and the degree of intraocular pressure elevation have been associated with visual field loss. There is no widely accepted treatment for ODD, although some clinicians will prescribe eye drops designed to decrease the intra-ocular pressure and theoretically relieve mechanical stress on fibers of the optic disc. Rarely choroidal neovascular membranes may develop adjacent to the optic disc threatening bleeding and retinal scarring. Laser treatment or photodynamic therapy or other evolving therapies may prevent this complication.
An accurate diagnosis of retinitis pigmentosa relies on the documentation of the progressive loss photoreceptor cell function, confirmed by a combination of visual field and visual acuity tests, fundus and optical coherence imagery, and electroretinography (ERG),
Visual field and acuity tests measure and compare the size of the patient's field of vision and the clarity of their visual perception with the standard visual measurements associated with healthy 20/20 vision. Clinical diagnostic features indicative of retinitis pigmentosa include a substantially small and progressively decreasing visual area in the visual field test, and compromised levels of clarity measured during the visual acuity test. Additionally, optical tomography such as fundus and retinal (optical coherence) imagery provide further diagnostic tools when determining an RP diagnosis. Photographing the back of the dilated eye allows the confirmation of bone spicule accumulation in the fundus, which presents during the later stages of RP retinal degeneration. Combined with cross-sectional imagery of optical coherence tomography, which provides clues into photoreceptor thickness, retinal layer morphology, and retinal pigment epithelium physiology, fundus imagery can help determine the state of RP progression.
While visual field and acuity test results combined with retinal imagery support the diagnosis of retinitis pigmentosa, additional testing is necessary to confirm other pathological features of this disease. Electroretinography (ERG) confirms the RP diagnosis by evaluating functional aspects associated with photoreceptor degeneration, and can detect physiological abnormalities before the initial manifestation of symptoms. An electrode lens is applied to the eye as photoreceptor response to varying degrees of quick light pulses is measured. Patients exhibiting the retinitis pigmentosa phenotype would show decreased or delayed electrical response in the rod photoreceptors, as well as possibly compromised cone photoreceptor cell response.
The patient's family history is also considered when determining a diagnosis due to the genetic mode of inheritance of retinitis pigmentosa. At least 35 different genes or loci are known to cause "nonsyndromic RP" (RP that is not the result of another disease or part of a wider syndrome). Indications of the RP mutation type can be determine through DNA testing, which is available on a clinical basis for:
- (autosomal recessive, Bothnia type RP)
- (autosomal dominant, RP1)
- (autosomal dominant, RP4)
- (autosomal dominant, RP7)
- (autosomal dominant, RP13)
- (autosomal dominant, RP18)
- CRB1 (autosomal recessive, RP12)
- (autosomal recessive, RP19)
- (autosomal recessive, RP20)
For all other genes (e.g. DHDDS), molecular genetic testing is available on a research basis only.
RP can be inherited in an autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, or X-linked manner. X-linked RP can be either recessive, affecting primarily only males, or dominant, affecting both males and females, although males are usually more mildly affected. Some digenic (controlled by two genes) and mitochondrial forms have also been described.
Genetic counseling depends on an accurate diagnosis, determination of the mode of inheritance in each family, and results of molecular genetic testing.
A retinal haemorrhage is generally diagnosed by using an ophthalmoscope or fundus camera in order to examine the inside of the eye. A fluorescent dye is often injected into the patient's bloodstream beforehand so the administering ophthalmologist can have a more detailed view of the blood vessels in the retina.
The fluorescent dye can have dangerous side effects: see Fluorescein
Macular telangiectasia type 1 must be differentiated from secondary telangiectasis caused by retinal vascular diseases such as retinal venous occlusions, diabetic retinopathy, radiation retinopathy, sickle cell maculopathy, inflammatory retinopathy/Irvine–Gass syndrome, ocular ischemic syndrome/carotid artery obstruction, hypertensive retinopathy, polycythemia vera retinopathy, and localized retinal capillary hemangioma. In addition, Macular telangiectasia type 1 should be clearly differentiated from dilated perifoveal capillaries with evidence of vitreous cellular infiltration secondary to acquired inflammatory disease or tapetoretinal dystrophy. Less commonly, macular telangiectasis has been described in association with fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy, incontinentia pigmenti, and familial exudative vitreoretinopathy with posterior pole involvement.
Macular telangiectasia type 2 is commonly under-diagnosed. The findings may appear very similar to diabetic retinopathy, and many cases ave been incorrectly ascribed to diabetic retinopathy or age-related macular degeneration. Recognition of this condition can save an affected patient from unnecessarily undergoing extensive medical testing and/or treatment. MacTel should be considered in cases of mild paramacular dot and blot hemorrhages and in cases of macular and paramacular RPE hyperplasia where no other cause can be identified.
Careful eye examination by an ophthalmologist or optometrist is critical for diagnosing symptomatic VMA. Imaging technologies such as optical coherence tomography (OCT) have significantly improved the accuracy of diagnosing symptomatic VMA.
A new FDA approved drug was released on the market late 2013. Jetrea (Brand name) or Ocriplasmin (Generic name) is the first drug of its kind used to treat vitreomacular adhension.
Mechanism of Action: Ocriplasmin is a truncated human plasmin with proteolytic activity against protein components of the vitreous body and vitreretinal interface. It dissolves the protein matrix responsible for the vitreomacular adhesion.
Adverse drug reactions: Decreased vision, potential for lens sublaxation, dyschromatopsia (yellow vision), eye pain, floaters, blurred vision.
New Drug comparison Rating gave Jetea a 5 indicating an important advance.
Previously, no recommended treatment was available for the patient with mild symptomatic VMA. In symptomatic VMA patients with more significant vision loss, the standard of care is pars plana vitrectomy (PPV), which involves surgically removing the vitreous from the eye, thereby surgically releasing the symptomatic VMA. In other words, vitrectomy induces PVD to release the traction/adhesion on the retina. An estimated 850,000 vitrectomy procedures are performed globally on an annual basis with 250,000 in the United States alone.
A standard PPV procedure can lead to serious complications including small-gauge PPV. Complications can include retinal detachment, retinal tears, endophthalmitis, and postoperative cataract formation. Additionally, PPV may result in incomplete separation, and it may potentially leave a nidus for vasoactive and vasoproliferative substances, or it may induce development of fibrovascular membranes. As with any invasive surgical procedure, PPV introduces trauma to the vitreous and surrounding tissue.
There are data showing that nonsurgical induction of PVD using ocriplasmin (a recombinant protease with activity against fibronectin and laminin) can offer the benefits of successful PVD while eliminating the risks associated with a surgical procedure, i.e. vitrectomy. Pharmacologic vitreolysis is an improvement over invasive surgery as it induces complete separation, creates a more physiologic state of the vitreomacular interface, prevents the development of fibrovascular membranes, is less traumatic to the vitreous, and is potentially prophylactic. As of 2012, ThromboGenics is still developing the ocriplasmin biological agent. Ocriplasmin is approved recently under the name Jetrea for use in the United States by the FDA.view.
An experimental test of injections of perfluoropropane (CF) on 15 symptomatic eyes of 14 patients showed that vitreomacular traction resolved in 6 eyes within 1 month and resolved in 3 more eyes within 6 months.
Although MacTel is uncommon, its prevalence is probably higher than most physicians believe. The early findings are subtle, so the diagnosis is likely often missed by optometrists and general ophthalmologists. MacTel was detected in 0.1% of subjects in the Beaver Dam study population over age 45 years, but this is probably an underestimate because identification was made based only on color photographs.
No major new biomicroscopic features of MacTel have been identified since the early work of Gass and colleagues.
The advent of optical coherence tomography (OCT) has allowed better characterization of the nature of the inner and outer lamellar cavities. Loss of central masking seen on autofluorescence studies, apparently due to loss of luteal pigment, is now recognized as probably the earliest and most sensitive and specific MacTel abnormality.
The key fundus findings in macular telangiectasia type 2 involve retinal crystalline—fine, refractile deposits in the superficial retinal layers—may be seen within the affected area.a focal area of diminished retinal transparency (i.e. "greying") and/or small retinal hemorrhages just temporal to the fovea. Dilated capillaries may also be noted within this area, and while this is often difficult to visualize ophthalmoscopically, the abnormal capillary pattern is readily identifiable with fluorescein angiography.
Areas of focal RPE hyperplasia, i.e.pigment plaques, often develop in the paramacular region as a response to these abnormal vessels. Other signs of macular telangiectasia type 2 include right angle venules, representing an unusual alteration of the vasculature in the paramacular area, with vessels taking an abrupt turn toward the macula as if being dragged.
Diagnosis of MacTel type 2 may be aided by the use of advanced imaging techniques such as fluorescein angiography, fundus autofluorescence, and OCT. These can help to identify the abnormal vessels, pigment plaques, retinal crystals, foveal atrophy and intraretinal cavities associated with this disorder.
Fluorescein angiography (FA) is helpful in identifying the anomalous vasculature, particularly in the early stages of Type 2 disease. Formerly, FA was essential in making a definitive diagnosis. However, the diagnosis can be established with less invasive imaging techniques such as OCT and fundus autofluorescence. Some clinicians argue that FA testing may be unnecessary when a diagnosis is apparent via less invasive means.
The natural history of macular telangiectasia suggests a slowly progressive disorder. A retrospective series of 20 patients over 10 to 21 years showed deterioration of vision in more than 84% of eyes, either due to intra-retinal edema and serous retinal detachment (Type 1) or pigmented RPE scar formation or neovascularisation (Type 2).
Predisposing factors for Postoperative PVR are preoperative PVR, aphakia, high levels of vitreous proteins, duration of retinal detachment before corrective surgery, the size of the retinal hole or tear, intra-ocular inflammation, vitreous hemorrhage, and trauma to the eye. An equation to calculate the patient's risk for acquiring PVR is:
1 is added if the risk factor is present and 0 if the risk factor is absent. A patient is at a high risk for developing PVR is the PVR score is >6.33.
The diagnosis of BRVO is made clinically by finding retinal hemorrhages in the distribution of an obstructed retinal vein.
- Fluorescein angiography is a helpful adjunct. Findings include delayed venous filling, hypofluorescence caused by hemorrhage and capillary nonperfusion, dilation and tortuosity of veins, leakage due to neovascularization and macular edema.
- Optical coherence tomography is an adjunctive test in BRVO. Macular edema is commonly seen in BRVO in OCT exams. Serial OCT is used as a rapid and noninvasive way of monitoring the macular edema.
No complications are encountered in most patients with lattice degeneration, although in young myopes, retinal detachment can occur. There are documented cases with macula-off retinal detachment in patients with asymptomatic lattice degeneration. Partial or complete vision loss almost always occurs in such cases. Currently there is no prevention or cure for lattice degeneration.
Surgeons can remove or peel the membrane through the sclera and improve vision by 2 or more Snellen lines. Usually the vitreous is replaced at the same time with clear (BSS) fluid, in a vitrectomy. Surgery is not usually recommended unless the distortions are severe enough to interfere with daily living, since there are the usual hazards of surgery, infections, and a possibility of retinal detachment. More common complications are high intraocular pressure, bleeding in the eye, and cataracts, which are the most frequent complication of vitrectomy surgery. Many patients will develop a cataract within the first few years after surgery. In fact, the visual distortions and diplopia created by cataracts may sometimes be confused with epiretinal membrane.