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Blood is generally drawn from the father to help determine fetal antigen status. If he is homozygous for the antigen, there is a 100% chance of all offspring in the pairing to be positive for the antigen and at risk for HDN. If he is heterozygous, there is a 50% chance of offspring to be positive for the antigen. This test can help with knowledge for the current baby, as well as aid in the decision about future pregnancies. With RhD, the test is called the RhD genotype. With RhCE, and Kell antigen it is called an antigen phenotype.
In some cases, the direct coombs will be negative but severe, even fatal HDN can occur. An indirect coombs needs to be run in cases of anti-C, anti-c, and anti-M. Anti-M also recommends antigen testing to rule out the presence of HDN.
- Hgb - the infant’s hemoglobin should be tested from cord blood.
- Reticulocyte count - Reticulocytes are elevated when the infant is producing more blood to combat anemia. A rise in the retic count can mean that an infant may not need additional transfusions. Low retic is observed in infants treated with IUT and in those with HDN from anti-Kell
- Neutrophils - as Neutropenia is one of the complications of HDN, the neutrophil count should be checked.
- Thrombocytes - as thrombocytopenia is one of the complications of HDN, the thrombocyte count should be checked.
- Bilirubin should be tested from cord blood.
- Ferritin - because most infants affected by HDN have iron overload, a ferritin must be run before giving the infant any additional iron.
- Newborn Screening Tests - Transfusion with donor blood during pregnancy or shortly after birth can affect the results of the Newborn Screening Tests. It is recommended to wait and retest 10–12 months after last transfusion. In some cases, DNA testing from saliva can be used to rule out certain conditions.
Most Rh disease can be prevented by treating the mother during pregnancy or promptly (within 72 hours) after childbirth. The mother has an intramuscular injection of anti-Rh antibodies (Rho(D) immune globulin). This is done so that the fetal rhesus D positive erythrocytes are destroyed before the immune system of the mother can discover them and become sensitized. This is passive immunity and the effect of the immunity will wear off after about 4 to 6 weeks (or longer depending on injected dose) as the anti-Rh antibodies gradually decline to zero in the maternal blood.
It is part of modern antenatal care to give all rhesus D negative pregnant women an anti-RhD IgG immunoglobulin injection at about 28 weeks gestation (with or without a booster at 34 weeks gestation). This reduces the effect of the vast majority of sensitizing events which mostly occur after 28 weeks gestation. Giving Anti-D to all Rhesus negative pregnant women can mean giving it to mothers who do not need it (because her baby is Rhesus negative or their blood did not mix). Many countries routinely give Anti-D to Rhesus D negative women in pregnancy. In other countries, stocks of Anti-D can run short or even run out. Before Anti-D is made routine in these countries, stocks should be readily available so that it is available for women who need Anti-D in an emergency situation.
A recent review found research into giving Anti-D to all Rhesus D negative pregnant women is of low quality. However the research did suggest that the risk of the mother producing antibodies to attack Rhesus D positive fetal cells was lower in mothers who had the Anti-D in pregnancy. There were also fewer mothers with a positive kleihauer test (which shows if the mother’s and unborn baby’s blood has mixed).
Anti-RhD immunoglobulin is also given to non-sensitized rhesus negative women immediately (within 72 hours—the sooner the better) after potentially sensitizing events that occur earlier in pregnancy.
The discovery of cell-free DNA in the maternal plasma has allowed for the non-invasive determination of the fetal RHD genotype. In May 2017, the Society for Obstetrics and Gynecology of Canada is now recommending that the optimal management of the D-negative pregnant woman is based on the prediction of the fetal D-blood group by cell-free DNA in maternal plasma with targeted antenatal anti-D prophylaxis. This provides the optimal care for D-negative pregnant women and has been adopted as the standard approach in a growing number of countries around the world. It is no longer considered appropriate to treat all D-negative pregnant women with human plasma derivatives when there are no benefits to her or to the fetus in a substantial percentage of cases.
Obstetric ultrasonography can detect fetal abnormalities, detect multiple pregnancies, and improve gestational dating at 24 weeks. The resultant estimated gestational age and due date of the fetus are slightly more accurate than methods based on last menstrual period. Ultrasound is used to measure the nuchal fold in order to screen for Downs syndrome.
Pregnancy detection can be accomplished using one or more various pregnancy tests, which detect hormones generated by the newly formed placenta, serving as biomarkers of pregnancy. Blood and urine tests can detect pregnancy 12 days after implantation. Blood pregnancy tests are more sensitive than urine tests (giving fewer false negatives). Home pregnancy tests are urine tests, and normally detect a pregnancy 12 to 15 days after fertilization. A quantitative blood test can determine approximately the date the embryo was conceived because HCG doubles every 36 to 48 hours. A single test of progesterone levels can also help determine how likely a fetus will survive in those with a threatened miscarriage (bleeding in early pregnancy).
Some disorders and conditions can mean that pregnancy is considered high-risk (about 6-8% of pregnancies in the USA) and in extreme cases may be contraindicated. High-risk pregnancies are the main focus of doctors specialising in maternal-fetal medicine.
Serious pre-existing disorders which can reduce a woman's physical ability to survive pregnancy include a range of congenital defects (that is, conditions with which the woman herself was born, for example, those of the heart or , some of which are listed above) and diseases acquired at any time during the woman's life.
Miscarriage is the loss of a pregnancy prior to 20 weeks. In the UK miscarriage is defined as the loss of a pregnancy during the first 23 weeks.
Placental abruption is suspected when a pregnant mother has sudden localized abdominal pain with or without bleeding. The fundus may be monitored because a rising fundus can indicate bleeding. An ultrasound may be used to rule out placenta praevia but is not diagnostic for abruption. The diagnosis is one of exclusion, meaning other possible sources of vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain have to be ruled out in order to diagnose placental abruption. Of note, use of magnetic resonance imaging has been found to be highly sensitive in depicting placental abruption, and may be considered if no ultrasound evidence of placental abruption is present, especially if the diagnosis of placental abruption would change management.
Although the risk of placental abruption cannot be eliminated, it can be reduced. Avoiding tobacco, alcohol and cocaine during pregnancy decreases the risk. Staying away from activities which have a high risk of physical trauma is also important. Women who have high blood pressure or who have had a previous placental abruption and want to conceive must be closely supervised by a doctor.
The risk of placental abruption can be reduced by maintaining a good diet including taking folic acid, regular sleep patterns and correction of pregnancy-induced hypertension.
It is crucial for women to be made aware of the signs of placental abruption, such as vaginal bleeding, and that if they experience such symptoms they must get into contact with their health care provider/the hospital "without any delay".
A detailed stepwise management protocol has been introduced by the California Maternity Quality Care Collaborative. It describes 4 stages of obstetrical hemorrhage after childbirth and its application reduces maternal mortality.
- Stage 0: normal - treated with fundal massage and oxytocin.
- Stage 1: more than normal bleeding - establish large-bore intravenous access, assemble personnel, increase oxytocin, consider use of methergine, perform fundal massage, prepare 2 units of packed red blood cells.
- Stage 2: bleeding continues - check coagulation status, assemble response team, move to operating room, place intrauterine balloon, administer additional uterotonics (misoprostol, carboprost tromethamine), consider: uterine artery embolization, dilatation and curettage, and laparotomy with uterine compression stitches or hysterectomy.
- Stage 3: bleeding continues - activate massive transfusion protocol, mobilize additional personnel, recheck laboratory tests, perform laparotomy, consider hysterectomy.
A Cochrane review suggests that active management (use of uterotonic drugs, cord clamping and controlled cord traction) during the third stage of labour reduces severe bleeding and anemia. However, the review also found that active management increased the mother's blood pressure, nausea, vomiting, and pain. In the active management group more women returned to hospital with bleeding after discharge, and there was also a reduction in birthweight due to infants having a lower blood volume. The effects on the baby of early cord clamping was discussed in another review which found that delayed cord clamping improved iron stores longer term in the infants. Although they were more likely to need phototherapy (light therapy) to treat jaundice, the improved iron stores are expected to be worth increasing the practice of delayed cord clamping in healthy term babies. For preterm babies (babies born before 37 weeks) a review of the research found that delaying cord clamping by 30–45 seconds increased the amount of blood flow to the baby. This is important as increased blood volume in the baby made them less likely to develop some serious complications. Much of the research around this subject is poor quality so further, larger research projects are likely to produce more reliable results.
Another Cochrane review looking at the timing of the giving oxytocin as part of the active management found similar benefits with giving it before or after the expulsion of the placenta.
There is no good quality evidence on how best to treat a secondary PPH (PPH occurring 24 hrs or more after the birth).
The World Health Organization recommends the use of a device called the non-pneumatic anti-shock garment (NASG) for use in delivery activities outside of a hospital setting, the aim being to improve shock in a mother with obstetrical bleeding long enough to reach a hospital.
Instead of referring to "fetal distress" current recommendations hold to look for more specific signs and symptoms, assess them, and take the appropriate steps to remedy the situationthrough the implementation of intrauterine resuscitation. Traditionally the diagnosis of "fetal distress" led the obstetrician to recommend rapid delivery by instrumental delivery or by caesarean section if vaginal delivery is not advised.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends HIV testing for all pregnant women as a part of routine prenatal care. The test is usually performed in the first trimester of pregnancy with other routine laboratory tests. HIV testing is recommended because HIV-infected women who do not receive testing are more likely to transmit the infection to their children.
HIV testing may be offered to pregnant women on an "opt-in" or an "opt-out" basis. In the "opt-in" model, women are counseled on HIV testing and elect to receive the test by signing a consent form. In the "opt-out" model, the HIV test is automatically performed with other routine prenatal tests. If a woman does not want to be tested for HIV, she must specifically refuse the test and sign a form declining testing. The CDC recommends "opt-out" testing for all pregnant women because it improves disease detection and treatment and helps reduce transmission to children.
If a woman chooses to decline testing, she will not receive the test. However, she will continue to receive HIV counseling throughout the pregnancy so that she may be as informed as possible about the disease and its impact. She will be offered HIV testing at all stages of her pregnancy in case she changes her mind.
HIV testing begins with a screening test. The most common screening test is the rapid HIV antibody test which tests for HIV antibodies in blood, urine, or oral fluid. HIV antibodies are only produced if an individual is infected with the disease. Therefore, presence of the antibodies is indicative of an HIV infection. Sometimes, however, a person may be infected with HIV but the body has not produced enough antibodies to be detected by the test. If a woman has risk factors for HIV infection but tests negative on the initial screening test, she should be retested in 3 months to confirm that she does not have HIV. Another screening test that is more specific is the HIV antigen/antibody test. This is a newer blood test that can detect HIV infection quicker than the antibody test because it detects both virus particles and antibodies in the blood.
Any woman who has a positive HIV screening test must receive follow-up testing to confirm the diagnosis. The follow-up test can differentiate HIV-1 from HIV-2 and is a more specific antibody test. It may also detect the virus directly in the bloodstream.
According to current recommendations by the WHO, US CDC and U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), all individuals with HIV should begin ART. The recommendation is stronger under the following conditions:
- CD4 count below 350 cells/mm
- High viral load (>100,000 copies/ml)
- Progression of HIV to AIDS
- Development of HIV-related infections and illnesses
- Pregnancy
Women are encouraged to begin treatment as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV. If they are diagnosed prior to pregnancy, they should continue with ART during the pregnancy. If the diagnosis of HIV is made during the pregnancy, ART should be initiated immediately.
In HbS, the complete blood count reveals haemoglobin levels in the range of 6–8 g/dl with a high reticulocyte count (as the bone marrow compensates for the destruction of sickled cells by producing more red blood cells). In other forms of sickle-cell disease, Hb levels tend to be higher. A blood film may show features of hyposplenism (target cells and Howell-Jolly bodies).
Sickling of the red blood cells, on a blood film, can be induced by the addition of sodium metabisulfite. The presence of sickle haemoglobin can also be demonstrated with the "sickle solubility test". A mixture of haemoglobin S (Hb S) in a reducing solution (such as sodium dithionite) gives a turbid appearance, whereas normal Hb gives a clear solution.
Abnormal haemoglobin forms can be detected on haemoglobin electrophoresis, a form of gel electrophoresis on which the various types of haemoglobin move at varying speeds. Sickle-cell haemoglobin (HgbS) and haemoglobin C with sickling (HgbSC)—the two most common forms—can be identified from there. The diagnosis can be confirmed with high-performance liquid chromatography. Genetic testing is rarely performed, as other investigations are highly specific for HbS and HbC.
An acute sickle-cell crisis is often precipitated by infection. Therefore, a urinalysis to detect an occult urinary tract infection, and chest X-ray to look for occult pneumonia should be routinely performed.
People who are known carriers of the disease often undergo genetic counseling before they have a child. A test to see if an unborn child has the disease takes either a blood sample from the fetus or a sample of amniotic fluid. Since taking a blood sample from a fetus has greater risks, the latter test is usually used. Neonatal screening provides not only a method of early detection for individuals with sickle-cell disease, but also allows for identification of the groups of people that carry the sickle cell trait.
Obstructed labour may be diagnosed based on physical examination.
A woman's risk of having a baby with chromosomal abnormalities increases with her age. Down syndrome is the most common chromosomal birth defect, and a woman's risk of having a baby with Down syndrome is:
- At age 20, 1 in 1,441
- At age 25, 1 in 1,383
- At age 30, 1 in 959
- At age 35, 1 in 338
- At age 40, 1 in 84
- At age 45, 1 in 32
- At age 50, 1 in 44
If a liver biopsy is needed for diagnosis of the condition, the mother should be appropriately stabilized and treated to reduce bleeding related complications. The diagnosis can be made by a frozen-section (as opposed to a specimen in formalin) that is stained with the Oil red O stain, that shows microvesicular steatosis (or small collections of fat within the liver cells). The microvesicular steatosis usually spares zone one of the liver, which is the area closest to the hepatic artery. On the regular trichrome stain, the liver cell cytoplasm shows a foamy appearance due to the prominence of fat. Necrosis is rarely seen. The diagnosis can be enhanced by electron microscopy which can be used to confirm the presence of microvesicular steatosis, and specifically the presence of megamitochondria and paracrystalline inclusions. Liver diseases with similar appearances include Reye's syndrome, drug-induced hepatitis from agents with mitochondrial toxicity, including nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors used to treat HIV, and a rare condition known as Jamaican vomiting sickness which is caused by the eating of the unripened Ackee fruit.
Advanced maternal age is associated with adverse outcomes in the perinatal period, which may be caused by detrimental effects on decidual and placental development.
The risk of the mother dying before the child becomes an adult increases by more advanced maternal age, such as can be demonstrated by the following data from France in 2007:
Advanced maternal age continues to be associated with a range of adverse pregnancy outcomes including low birth weight, pre-term birth, stillbirth, unexplained fetal death, and increased rates of Caesarean section.
On the other hand, advanced maternal age is associated with a more stable family environment, higher socio-economic position, higher income and better living conditions, as well as better parenting practices, but it is more or less uncertain whether these entities are "effects" of advanced maternal age, are "contributors" to advanced maternal age, or common effects of a certain state such as personality type.
The treatment of obstructed labour may require cesarean section or vacuum extraction with possible surgical opening of the symphysis pubis. Other measures include: keeping the women hydrated and antibiotics if the membranes have been ruptured for more than 18 hours.
Up to 15 weeks' gestation, suction-aspiration or vacuum aspiration are the most common surgical methods of induced abortion. "Manual vacuum aspiration" (MVA) consists of removing the fetus or embryo, placenta, and membranes by suction using a manual syringe, while "electric vacuum aspiration" (EVA) uses an electric pump. These techniques differ in the mechanism used to apply suction, in how early in pregnancy they can be used, and in whether cervical dilation is necessary.
MVA, also known as "mini-suction" and "menstrual extraction", can be used in very early pregnancy, and does not require cervical dilation. Dilation and curettage (D&C), the second most common method of surgical abortion, is a standard gynecological procedure performed for a variety of reasons, including examination of the uterine lining for possible malignancy, investigation of abnormal bleeding, and abortion. Curettage refers to cleaning the walls of the uterus with a curette. The World Health Organization recommends this procedure, also called "sharp curettage," only when MVA is unavailable.
From the 15th week of gestation until approximately the 26th, other techniques must be used. Dilation and evacuation (D&E) consists of opening the cervix of the uterus and emptying it using surgical instruments and suction. After the 16th week of gestation, abortions can also be induced by intact dilation and extraction (IDX) (also called intrauterine cranial decompression), which requires surgical decompression of the fetus's head before evacuation. IDX is sometimes called "partial-birth abortion", which has been federally banned in the United States.
In the third trimester of pregnancy, induced abortion may be performed surgically by intact dilation and extraction or by hysterotomy. Hysterotomy abortion is a procedure similar to a caesarean section and is performed under general anesthesia. It requires a smaller incision than a caesarean section and is used during later stages of pregnancy.
First-trimester procedures can generally be performed using local anesthesia, while second-trimester methods may require deep sedation or general anesthesia.
The diagnosis of acute fatty liver of pregnancy is usually made on clinical grounds by the treating physician or midwife, but differentiation from other conditions affecting the liver may be difficult. The diagnosis of acute fatty liver of pregnancy is suggested by jaundice with a lesser elevation of liver enzymes, elevated white blood cell count, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and a clinically unwell patient.
A liver biopsy can provide a definitive diagnosis, but is not always done, due to the increased chance of bleeding in acute fatty liver of pregnancy. Often testing will be done to exclude more common conditions that present in a similar fashion, including viral hepatitis, pre-eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, and autoimmune hepatitis.
Postpartum thyroid dysfunction (PPTD) is a syndrome of thyroid dysfunction occurring within the first 12 months of delivery as a consequence of the postpartum immunological rebound that follows the immune tolerant state of pregnancy. PPTD is a destructive thyroiditis with similar pathogenetic features to Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
The disease is very common with a prevalence of 5-9% of unselected postpartum women. Typically there is a transient hyperthyroid phase that is followed by a phase of hypothyroidism. Permanent hypothyroidism occurs in as much as 30% of cases after 3 years, and in 50% at 7–10 years. The hyperthyroid phase will not usually require treatment but, rarely, propanolol may be used for symptom control in severe cases. The hypothyroid phase should be treated with thyroxine if patients are symptomatic, planning to get pregnant, or if TSH levels are above 10 mU/L. Long-term follow up is necessary due to the risk of permanent hypothyroidism.
Nearly all the women with PPTD have positive TPO antibodies. This marker can be a useful screening test in early pregnancy as 50% of women with antibodies will develop thyroid dysfunction postpartum. In addition some but not all studies have shown an association between PPTD and depression so that thyroid function should be checked postpartum in women with mood changes.
Medical abortions are those induced by abortifacient pharmaceuticals. Medical abortion became an alternative method of abortion with the availability of prostaglandin analogs in the 1970s and the antiprogestogen mifepristone (also known as RU-486) in the 1980s.
The most common early first-trimester medical abortion regimens use mifepristone in combination with a prostaglandin analog (misoprostol or gemeprost) up to 9 weeks gestational age, methotrexate in combination with a prostaglandin analog up to 7 weeks gestation, or a prostaglandin analog alone. Mifepristone–misoprostol combination regimens work faster and are more effective at later gestational ages than methotrexate–misoprostol combination regimens, and combination regimens are more effective than misoprostol alone. This regime is effective in the second trimester. Medical abortion regiments involving mifepristone followed by misoprostol in the cheek between 24 and 48 hours later are effective when performed before 63 days' gestation.
In very early abortions, up to 7 weeks gestation, medical abortion using a mifepristone–misoprostol combination regimen is considered to be more effective than surgical abortion (vacuum aspiration), especially when clinical practice does not include detailed inspection of aspirated tissue. Early medical abortion regimens using mifepristone, followed 24–48 hours later by buccal or vaginal misoprostol are 98% effective up to 9 weeks gestational age. If medical abortion fails, surgical abortion must be used to complete the procedure.
Early medical abortions account for the majority of abortions before 9 weeks gestation in Britain, France, Switzerland, and the Nordic countries. In the United States, the percentage of early medical abortions is far lower.
Medical abortion regimens using mifepristone in combination with a prostaglandin analog are the most common methods used for second-trimester abortions in Canada, most of Europe, China and India, in contrast to the United States where 96% of second-trimester abortions are performed surgically by dilation and evacuation.
Generally it is preferable to describe specific signs in lieu of declaring "fetal distress" that include:
- Decreased movement felt by the mother
- Meconium in the amniotic fluid ("meconium stained fluid")
- Non-reassuring patterns seen on cardiotocography:
- increased or decreased fetal heart rate (tachycardia and bradycardia), especially during and after a contraction
- decreased variability in the fetal heart rate
- late decelerations
- Biochemical signs, assessed by collecting a small sample of baby's blood from a scalp prick through the open cervix in labor
- fetal metabolic acidosis
- elevated fetal blood lactate levels (from fetal scalp blood testing) indicating the baby has a lactic acidosis
Some of these signs are more reliable predictors of fetal compromise than others. For example, cardiotocography can give high false positive rates, even when interpreted by highly experienced medical personnel. Metabolic acidosis is a more reliable predictor, but is not always available.
A number of other conditions can cause fevers following delivery including: urinary tract infections, breast engorgement, atelectasis and surgical incisions among others.