Made by DATEXIS (Data Science and Text-based Information Systems) at Beuth University of Applied Sciences Berlin
Deep Learning Technology: Sebastian Arnold, Betty van Aken, Paul Grundmann, Felix A. Gers and Alexander Löser. Learning Contextualized Document Representations for Healthcare Answer Retrieval. The Web Conference 2020 (WWW'20)
Funded by The Federal Ministry for Economic Affairs and Energy; Grant: 01MD19013D, Smart-MD Project, Digital Technologies
FDG positron emission tomography (PET) may be useful to detect the condition early. Other imaging studies including MRI, CT scans, and X-rays may reveal inflammation and/or damaged cartilage facilitating diagnosis.
Biopsy of the cartilage tissue (for example, ear) may show tissue inflammation and destruction, and may help with the diagnosis. The Biopsy of cartilage in patients with relapsing polychondritis may demonstrate chondrolysis, chondritis, and perichondritis.
Perichondritis is inflammation of the perichondrium, a layer of connective tissue which surrounds cartilage. A common form, auricular perichondritis ("perichondritis auriculae") involves infection of the pinna due to infection of traumatic or surgical wound or the spread of inflammation into depth. It may lead to severe deformation of the pinna if not treated vigorously with IV antibiotics. The causative organism is usually "Pseudomonas aeruginosa". A rare form is laryngeal perichondritis ("perichondritis laryngis"). It develops suddenly due to an injury, virulent organisms or compromised immune status of the host, and also affects cartilage of the larynx. This may result in deformations and stenoses.
Long-term antibiotics, while they decrease rates of infection during treatment, have an unknown effect on long-term outcomes such as hearing loss. This method of prevention has been associated with emergence of antibiotic-resistant otitic bacteria. They are thus not recommended.
Pneumococcal conjugate vaccines (PCV) in early infancy, decreases the risk of acute otitis media in healthy infants. PCV is recommended for all children, and, if implemented broadly, PCV would have a significant public health benefit. Influenza vaccine is recommended annually for all children. PCV does not appear to decrease the risk of otitis media when given to high-risk infants or for older children who have previously experienced otitis media.
Risk factors such as season, allergy predisposition and presence of older siblings are known to be determinants of recurrent otitis media and persistent middle-ear effusions (MEE). History of recurrence, environmental exposure to tobacco smoke, use of daycare, and lack of breastfeeding have all been associated with increased risk of development, recurrence, and persistent MEE. Thus, cessation of smoking in the home should be encouraged, daycare attendance should be avoided or daycare facilities with the fewest attendees should be recommended, and breastfeeding should be promoted.
There is some evidence that breastfeeding for the first year of life is associated with a reduction in the number and duration of OM infections. Pacifier use, on the other hand, has been associated with more frequent episodes of AOM.
Evidence does not support zinc supplementation as an effort to reduce otitis rates except maybe in those with severe malnutrition such as marasmus.
Adhesive otitis media occurs when a thin retracted ear drum becomes sucked into the middle-ear space and stuck (i.e., adherent) to the ossicles and other bones of the middle ear.
Some signs and symptoms indicate the need for early referral. These include
- Difficulty swallowing
- Vocal stridor
- Ear pain
- Recent weight loss
- History of smoking
- Current or recent radiotherapy treatment (in the neck region)
- Recent neck surgery or surgery involving endotracheal tubing
- Person is a professional voice user (teacher, singer, actor, call center worker, and so on)
The cornerstone of diagnosis is an accurate history, and a good clinical examination of the eye, to eliminate traumatic uveitis. Ultrasonography is a useful tool, as it can detect a thickened iris, but only in the hands of an expert.
Treatment is often supportive in nature, and depends on the severity and type of laryngitis (acute or chronic). General measures to relieve symptoms of laryngitis include behaviour modification, hydration and humidification.
Vocal hygiene (care of the voice) is very important to relieve symptoms of laryngitis. Vocal hygiene involves measures such as
- Resting the voice
- Drinking sufficient amounts of water
- Reducing caffeine and alcohol intake
- Stopping smoking
- Limiting throat clearing
Voice hygiene programs are given by speech-language pathologists. These programs typically include the following components:
- Addressing amount and type of voice use
- Reducing behaviours that are damaging to the vocal folds
- Increasing hydration
- Adjusting lifestyle (for example, limiting caffeine and managing medical conditions)
Kogoj's spongiform pustules can be observed via histopathology to confirm acute GPP.
For acute pericarditis to formally be diagnosed, two or more of the following criteria must be present: chest pain consistent with a diagnosis of acute pericarditis (sharp chest pain worsened by breathing in or a cough), a pericardial friction rub, a pericardial effusion, and changes on electrocardiogram (ECG) consistent with acute pericarditis.
A complete blood count may show an elevated white count and a serum C-reactive protein may be elevated. Acute pericarditis is associated with a modest increase in serum creatine kinase MB (CK-MB). and cardiac troponin I (cTnI), both of which are also markers for injury to the muscular layer of the heart. Therefore, it is imperative to also rule out acute myocardial infarction in the face of these biomarkers. The elevation of these substances may occur when inflammation of the heart's muscular layer in addition to acute pericarditis. Also, ST elevation on EKG (see below) is more common in those patients with a cTnI > 1.5 µg/L. Coronary angiography in those patients should indicate normal vascular perfusion. Troponin levels increase in 35-50% of people with pericarditis.
Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes in acute pericarditis mainly indicates inflammation of the epicardium (the layer directly surrounding the heart), since the fibrous pericardium is electrically inert. For example, in uremia, there is no inflammation in the epicardium, only fibrin deposition, and therefore the EKG in uremic pericarditis will be normal. Typical EKG changes in acute pericarditis includes
- stage 1 -- diffuse, positive, ST elevations with reciprocal ST depression in aVR and V1. Elevation of PR segment in aVR and depression of PR in other leads especially left heart V5, V6 leads indicates atrial injury.
- stage 2 -- normalization of ST and PR deviations
- stage 3 -- diffuse T wave inversions (may not be present in all patients)
- stage 4 -- EKG becomes normal OR T waves may be indefinitely inverted
The two most common clinical conditions where ECG findings may mimic pericarditis are acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and generalized early repolarization. As opposed to pericarditis, AMI usually causes localized convex ST-elevation usually associated with reciprocal ST-depression which may also be frequently accompanied by Q-waves, T-wave inversions (while ST is still elevated unlike pericarditis), arrhythmias and conduction abnormalities. In AMI, PR-depressions are rarely present. Early repolarization usually occurs in young males (age <40 years) and ECG changes are characterized by terminal R-S slurring, temporal stability of ST-deviations and J-height/ T-amplitude ratio in V5 and V6 of <25% as opposed to pericarditis where terminal R-S slurring is very uncommon and J-height/ T-amplitude ratio is ≥ 25%. Very rarely, ECG changes in hypothermia may mimic pericarditis, however differentiation can be helpful by a detailed history and presence of an Osborne wave in hypothermia.
Another important diagnostic electrocardiographic sign in acute pericarditis is the Spodick sign. It signifies to the PR-depressions in a usual (but not always) association with downsloping TP segment in patients with acute pericarditis and is present in up to 80% of the patients affected with acute pericarditis. The sign is often best visualized in lead II and lateral precordial leads. In addition, Spodick’s sign may also serve as an important distinguishing electrocardiographic tool between the acute pericarditis and acute coronary syndrome. The presence of a classical Spodick’s sign is often a giveaway to the diagnosis.
Rarely, electrical alternans may be seen, depending on the size of the effusion.
A chest x-ray is usually normal in acute pericarditis, but can reveal the presence of an enlarged heart if a pericardial effusion is present and is greater than 200 mL in volume. Conversely, patients with unexplained new onset cardiomegaly should always be worked up for acute pericarditis.
An echocardiogram is typically normal in acute pericarditis but can reveal pericardial effusion, the presence of which supports the diagnosis, although its absence does not exclude the diagnosis.
Acute GPP typically requires inpatient management including both topical and systemic therapy, and supportive measures. Systemic glucocorticoid withdrawal is a common causative agent. Withdrawal or administration of certain drugs in the patient's previous medication regimen may be required. Oral retinoids are the most effective treatment, and are considered first line. Cyclosporine or infliximab may be required for particularly acute cases.
Acute care is the early and specialist management of adult patients suffering from a wide range of medical conditions requiring urgent or emergency care usually within 48 hoursof admission or referral from other specialties.
Acute hospitals are those intended for short-term medical and/or surgical treatment and care. The related medical speciality is acute medicine.
Acute prostatitis is relatively easy to diagnose due to its symptoms that suggest infection. The organism may be found in blood or urine, and sometimes in both. Common bacteria are "Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas, Enterobacter, Enterococcus, Serratia," and "Staphylococcus aureus." This can be a medical emergency in some patients and hospitalization with intravenous antibiotics may be required. A complete blood count reveals increased white blood cells. Sepsis from prostatitis is very rare, but may occur in immunocompromised patients; high fever and malaise generally prompt blood cultures, which are often positive in sepsis. A prostate massage should never be done in a patient with suspected acute prostatitis, since it may induce sepsis. Since bacteria causing the prostatitis is easily recoverable from the urine, prostate massage is not required to make the diagnosis. Rectal palpation usually reveals an enlarged, exquisitely tender, swollen prostate gland, which is firm, warm, and, occasionally, irregular to the touch. C-reactive protein is elevated in most cases.
Prostate biopsies are not indicated as the (clinical) features (described above) are diagnostic. The histologic correlate of acute prostatitis is a neutrophilic infiltration of the prostate gland.
Acute prostatitis is associated with a transiently elevated PSA, i.e., the PSA is increased during an episode of acute prostatitis and then decreases again after it has resolved. PSA testing is not indicated in the context of uncomplicated acute prostatitis.
Acute esophageal necrosis can only be diagnosed by an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy.
Horses that suffer from this disease can never be considered cured, although they can be managed by careful use of the therapy described above, and fast detection of new flare-ups. If the disease is not properly treated, it will eventually lead to blindness.
The diagnosis of this syndrome can be done via the test "Branchiootorenal syndrome via the SIX5 Gene" whose purpose is mutation confirmation and risk assessment (screening).
The differential diagnosis of acute proliferative glomerulonephritisis is based on the following:
Currently, there is no direct treatment for AEN. Only treatment is for the underlying main diseases or conditions. Appropriate hydration is set. Antacids are also added for further recovery support. Common support drugs of antacids are either H receptor antagonists, and/or a proton pump inhibitor. Sucralfate was used as an option. Parenteral nutrition greatly increased chance of recovery. An esophagectomy can be issued if the disorder is severe enough.
The following diagnostic methods can be used for acute proliferative glomerulonephritis:
- Kidney biopsy
- Complement profile
- Imaging studies
- Blood chemistry studies
Clinically, acute proliferative glomerulonephritis is diagnosed following a differential diagnosis between (and, ultimately, diagnosis of) staphylococcal and streptococcal impetigo. Serologically, diagnostic markers can be tested; specifically, the streptozyme test is used and measures multiple streptococcal antibodies: antistreptolysin, antihyaluronidase, antistreptokinase, antinicotinamide-adenine dinucleotidase, and anti-DNAse B antibodies.
Predicts mortality risk in pancreatitis with fewer variables than Ranson's criteria. Data should be taken from the first 24 hours of the patient's evaluation.
- BUN >25 mg/dL (8.9 mmol/L)
- Abnormal mental status with a Glasgow coma score <15
- Evidence of SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome)
- Patient age >60 years old
- Imaging study reveals pleural effusion
Patients with a score of zero had a mortality of less than one percent, whereas patients with a score of five had a mortality rate of 22 percent. In the validation cohort, the BISAP score had similar test performance characteristics for predicting mortality as the APACHE II score. As is a problem with many of the other scoring systems, the BISAP has not been validated for predicting outcomes such as length of hospital stay, need for ICU care, or need for intervention.
In predicting the prognosis, there are several scoring indices that have been used as predictors of survival. Two such scoring systems are the Ranson criteria and APACHE II (Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation) indices. Most, but not all studies report that the Apache score may be more accurate. In the negative study of the APACHE-II, the APACHE-II 24-hour score was used rather than the 48-hour score. In addition, all patients in the study received an ultrasound twice which may have influenced allocation of co-interventions. Regardless, only the APACHE-II can be fully calculated upon admission. As the APACHE-II is more cumbersome to calculate, presumably patients whose only laboratory abnormality is an elevated lipase or amylase do not need assessment with the APACHE-II; however, this approach is not studied. The APACHE-II score can be calculated at www.sfar.org.
Practice guidelines state:
An oral whole cell nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae vaccine may protect against the disease, but "the evidence is mixed".
Acute Cerebellar ataxia is a diagnosis of exclusion. Urgent CT scan is necessary to rule out cerebellar tumor or hemorrhage as cause of the ataxia; however in acute cerebellar ataxia, the CT will be normal. CSF studies are normal earlier in the course of disease. Later on CSF shows moderate elevation of proteins.
As the cause of the ischemia can be due to embolic or thrombotic occlusion of the mesenteric vessels or nonocclusive ischemia, the best way to differentiate between the etiologies is through the use of mesenteric angiography. Though it has serious risks, angiography provides the possibility of direct infusion of vasodilators in the setting of nonocclusive ischemia.
Treatment is symptomatic, often addressing indicators associated with peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis. Laryngotracheal calcification resulting in dyspnea and forceful breathing can be treated with bronchodilators including the short and long-acting β2-agonists, and various anticholinergics. Prognosis is good, yet life expectancy depends on the severity and extent of diffuse pulmonary and arterial calcification.