The pH of patient's blood is highly variable, and acidemia is not necessarily characteristic of sufferers of dRTA at any given time. One may have dRTA caused by alpha intercalated cell failure without necessarily being acidemic; termed "incomplete dRTA," which is characterized by an inability to acidify urine, without affecting blood pH or plasma bicarbonate levels. The diagnosis of dRTA can be made by the observation of a urinary pH of greater than 5.3 in the face of a systemic acidemia (usually taken to be a serum bicarbonate of 20 mmol/l or less). In the case of an incomplete dRTA, failure to acidify the urine following an oral acid loading challenge is often used as a test. The test usually performed is "the short ammonium chloride test", in which ammonium chloride capsules are used as the acid load. More recently, an alternative test using furosemide and fludrocortisone has been described.

Interestingly, dRTA has been proposed as a possible diagnosis for the unknown malady plaguing Tiny Tim in Charles Dickens' A Christmas Carol.

This is relatively straightforward. It involves correction of the acidemia with oral sodium bicarbonate, sodium citrate or potassium citrate. This will correct the acidemia and reverse bone demineralisation. Hypokalemia and urinary stone formation and nephrocalcinosis can be treated with potassium citrate tablets which not only replace potassium but also inhibit calcium excretion and thus do not exacerbate stone disease as sodium bicarbonate or citrate may do.

Treatment consists of oral bicarbonate supplementation. However, this will increase urinary bicarbonate wasting and may well promote a bicarbonate . The amount of bicarbonate given may have to be very large to stay ahead of the urinary losses. Correction with oral bicarbonate may exacerbate urinary potassium losses and precipitate hypokalemia. As with dRTA, reversal of the chronic acidosis should reverse bone demineralization.

Thiazide diuretics can also be used as treatment by making use of contraction alkalosis caused by them.

Type 4 RTA is not actually a tubular disorder at all nor does it have a clinical syndrome similar to the other types of RTA described above. It was included in the classification of renal tubular acidoses as it is associated with a mild (normal anion gap) metabolic acidosis due to a "physiological" reduction in proximal tubular ammonium excretion (impaired ammoniagenesis), which is secondary to hypoaldosteronism, and results in a decrease in urine buffering capacity. Its cardinal feature is hyperkalemia, and measured urinary acidification is normal, hence it is often called hyperkalemic RTA or tubular hyperkalemia.

Causes include:

- Aldosterone deficiency (hypoaldosteronism): Primary vs. hyporeninemic (including diabetic nephropathy)

- Aldosterone resistance

1. Drugs: NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors and ARBs, Eplerenone, Spironolactone, Trimethoprim, Pentamidine

2. Pseudohypoaldosteronism

Familial disorders

- Cystinosis

- Galactosemia

- Glycogen storage disease (type I)

- Hereditary fructose intolerance

- Lowe syndrome

- Tyrosinemia

- Wilson's disease

Acquired disorders

- Amyloidosis

- Multiple myeloma

- Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

- Toxins, such as HAART, ifosfamide, lead, and cadmium

In some patients, RTA shares features of both dRTA and pRTA. This rare pattern was observed in the 1960s and 1970s as a transient phenomenon in infants and children with dRTA (possibly in relation with some exogenous factor such as high salt intake) and is no longer observed. This form of RTA has also been referred to as juvenile RTA.

Combined dRTA and pRTA is also observed as the result of inherited carbonic anhydrase II deficiency. Mutations in the gene encoding this enzyme give rise to an autosomal recessive syndrome of osteopetrosis, renal tubular acidosis, cerebral calcification, and mental retardation. It is very rare and cases from all over the world have been reported, of which about 70% are from the Magreb region of North Africa, possibly due to the high prevalence of consanguinity there.

The kidney problems are treated as described above. There is no treatment for the osteopetrosis or cerebral calcification.

Type 3 is rarely discussed. Most comparisons of RTA are limited to a comparison of types 1, 2, and 4.

Brain MRI shows vermis atrophy or hypoplasic. Cerebral and cerebellar atrophy with white matter changes in some cases.

Electrodiagnostic testing (also called electrophysiologic) includes nerve conduction studies which involves stimulating a peripheral motor or sensory nerve and recording the response, and needle electromyography, where a thin needle or pin-like electrode is inserted into the muscle tissue to look for abnormal electrical activity.

Electrodiagnostic testing can help distinguish myopathies from neuropathies, which can help determine the course of further work-up. Most of the electrodiagnostic abnormalities seen in myopathies are also seen in neuropathies (nerve disorders). Electrodiagnostic abnormalities common to myopathies and neuropathies include; abnormal spontaneous activity (e.g., fibrillations, positive sharp waves, etc.) on needle EMG and, small amplitudes of the motor responses compound muscle action potential, or CMAP during nerve conduction studies. Many neuropathies, however, cause abnormalities of sensory nerve studies, whereas myopathies involve only the muscle, with normal sensory nerves. The most important factor distinguishing a myopathy from a neuropathy on needle EMG is the careful analysis of the motor unit action potential (MUAP) size, shape, and recruitment pattern.

There is substantial overlap between the electrodiagnostic findings the various types of myopathy. Thus, electrodiagnostic testing can help distinguish neuropathy from myopathy, but is not effective at distinguishing which specific myopathy is present, here muscle biopsy and perhaps subsequent genetic testing are required.

On examination of muscle biopsy material, the nuclear material is located predominantly in the center of the muscle cells, and is described as having any "myotubular" or "centronuclear" appearance. In terms of describing the muscle biopsy itself, "myotubular" or "centronuclear” are almost synonymous, and both terms point to the similar cellular-appearance among MTM and CNM. Thus, pathologists and treating physicians use those terms almost interchangeably, although researchers and clinicians are increasingly distinguishing between those phrases.

In general, a clinical myopathy and a muscle biopsy showing a centronuclear (nucleus in the center of the muscle cell) appearance would indicate a centronuclear myopathy (CNM). The most commonly diagnosed CNM is myotubular myopathy (MTM). However, muscle biopsy analysis alone cannot reliably distinguish myotubular myopathy from other forms of centronuclear myopathies, and thus genetic testing is required.

Diagnostic workup is often coordinated by a treating neurologist. In the United States, care is often coordinated through clinics affiliated with the Muscular Dystrophy Association.

Gillespie syndrome is a heterogeneous disorder, and can be inherited in either an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. Autosomal dominant inheritance indicates that the defective gene responsible for a disorder is located on an autosome, and only one copy of the gene is sufficient to cause the disorder, when inherited from a parent who has the disorder.

Autosomal recessive inheritance means the defective gene responsible for the disorder is located on an autosome, but two copies of the defective gene (one inherited from each parent) are required in order to be born with the disorder. The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive disorder both carry one copy of the defective gene, but usually do not experience any signs or symptoms of the disorder.

PAX6 gene analysis can also be helpful to distinguish between autosomal dominant aniridia and Gillespie syndrome. However Atypical Gillespie syndrome is associated mutation with "PAX6 gene".

To illucidate the underlying genetic defects karyotyping and the search for de novo translocations especially of chromosome X and 11 should be performed.

Galactosemic infants present clinical symptoms just days after the onset of a galactose diet. They include difficulty feeding, diarrhea, lethargy, hypotonia, jaundice, cataract, and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver). If not treated immediately, and many times even with treatment, severe mental retardation, verbal dyspraxia (difficulty), motor abnormalities, and reproductive complications may ensue. The most effective treatment for many of the initial symptoms is complete removal of galactose from the diet. Breast milk and cow's milk should be replaced with soy alternatives. Infant formula based on casein hydrolysates and dextrin maltose as a carbohydrate source can also be used for initial management, but are still high in galactose. The reason for long-term complications despite a discontinuation of the galactose diet is vaguely understood. However, it has been suggested that endogenous (internal) production of galactose may be the cause.

The treatment for galactosemic cataract is no different from general galactosemia treatment. In fact, galactosemic cataract is one of the few symptoms that is actually reversible. Infants should be immediately removed from a galactose diet when symptoms present, and the cataract should disappear and visibility should return to normal. Aldose reductase inhibitors, such as sorbinil, have also proven promising in preventing and reversing galactosemic cataracts. AR inhibitors hinder aldose reductase from synthesizing galactitol in the lens, and thus restricts the osmotic swelling of the lens fibers. Other AR inhibitors include the acetic acid compounds zopolrestat, tolrestat, alrestatin, and epalrestat. Many of these compounds have not been successful in clinical trials due to adverse pharmokinetic properties, inadequate efficacy and efficiency, and toxic side effects. Testing on such drug-treatments continues in order to determine potential long-term complications, and for a more detailed mechanism of how AR inhibitors prevent and reverse the galactosemic cataract.

Affected patients demonstrate no structural problems of the heart upon echocardiographic, CT or MRI imaging.

CPVT diagnosis is based on reproducing irregularly shaped ventricular arrhythmias during ECG exercise stress testing, syncope occurring during physical activity and acute emotion, and a history of exercise or emotion-related palpitations and dizziness with an absence of structural cardiac abnormalities.

Because its symptoms are usually only triggered when the body is subjected to intense emotional or physical stress, the condition is often not detected by the traditional methods of electrophysiologic examination such as a resting electrocardiogram.

MAIS is only diagnosed in normal phenotypic males, and is not typically investigated except in cases of male infertility. MAIS has a mild presentation that often goes unnoticed and untreated; even with semenological, clinical and laboratory data, it can be difficult to distinguish between men with and without MAIS, and thus a diagnosis of MAIS is not usually made without confirmation of an AR gene mutation. The androgen sensitivity index (ASI), defined as the product of luteinizing hormone (LH) and testosterone (T), is frequently raised in individuals with all forms of AIS, including MAIS, although many individuals with MAIS have an ASI in the normal range. Testosterone levels may be elevated despite normal levels of luteinizing hormone. Conversion of testosterone (T) to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) may be impaired, although to a lesser extent than is seen in 5α-reductase deficiency. A high ASI in a normal phenotypic male, especially when combined with azoospermia or oligospermia, decreased secondary terminal hair, and/or impaired conversion of T to DHT, can be indicative of MAIS, and may warrant genetic testing.

Individuals with CAIS are raised as females. They are born phenotypically female and almost always have a heterosexual female gender identity; the incidence of homosexuality in women with CAIS is thought to be less than unaffected women. However, at least two case studies have reported male gender identity in individuals with CAIS.

In regards to the diagnosis of spinal and bulbar muscular atrophy, the "AR Xq12" gene is the focus. Many mutations are reported and identified as missense/nonsense, that can be identified with 99.9% accuracy. Test for this gene in the majority of affected patients yields the diagnosis.

CAIS can only be diagnosed in normal phenotypic females. It is not usually suspected unless the menses fail to develop at puberty, or an inguinal hernia presents during premenarche. As many as 1–2% of prepubertal girls that present with an inguinal hernia will also have CAIS.

A diagnosis of CAIS or Swyer syndrome can be made in utero by comparing a karyotype obtained by amniocentesis with the external genitalia of the fetus during a prenatal ultrasound. Many infants with CAIS do not experience the normal, spontaneous neonatal testosterone surge, a fact which can be diagnostically exploited by obtaining baseline luteinizing hormone and testosterone measurements, followed by a human chorionic gonadotropin (hGC) stimulation test.

The main differentials for CAIS are complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome) and Müllerian agenesis (Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome or MRKH). Both CAIS and Swyer syndrome are associated with a 46,XY karyotype, whereas MRKH is not; MRKH can thus be ruled out by checking for the presence of a Y chromosome, which can be done either by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) analysis or on full karyotype. Swyer syndrome is distinguished by poor breast development and shorter stature. The diagnosis of CAIS is confirmed when androgen receptor (AR) gene sequencing reveals a mutation, although up to 5% of individuals with CAIS do not have an AR mutation.

Up until the 1990s, a CAIS diagnosis was often hidden from the affected individual and / or family. It is current practice to disclose the genotype at the time of diagnosis, particularly when the affected girl is at least of adolescent age. If the affected individual is a child or infant, it is generally up to the parents, often in conjunction with a psychologist, to decide when to disclose the diagnosis.

Management of AIS is currently limited to symptomatic management; no method is currently available to correct the malfunctioning androgen receptor proteins produced by "AR" gene mutations. Areas of management include sex assignment, genitoplasty, gonadectomy in relation to tumor risk, hormone replacement therapy, genetic counseling, and psychological counseling.

Due to its mild presentation, MAIS often goes unnoticed and untreated. Management of MAIS is currently limited to symptomatic management; methods to correct a malfunctioning androgen receptor protein that result from an AR gene mutation are not currently available. Treatment includes surgical correction of mild gynecomastia, minor hypospadias repair, and testosterone supplementation. Supraphysiological doses of testosterone have been shown to correct diminished secondary sexual characteristics in men with MAIS, as well as to reverse infertility due to low sperm count. As is the case with PAIS, men with MAIS will experience side effects from androgen therapy (such as the suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis) at a higher dosage than unaffected men. Careful monitoring is required to ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment. Regular breast and prostate examinations may be necessary due to comorbid association with breast and prostate cancers.

Unfortunately, the number of differentials to consider for PAIS is particularly large. Prompt diagnosis is particularly urgent when a child is born with ambiguous genitalia, as some causes are associated with potentially life-threatening adrenal crises. Determination of testosterone, testosterone precursors and dihydrotestosterone (DHT) at baseline and / or after human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) stimulation can be used to exclude such defects in androgen biosynthesis.

Approximately one half of all 46,XY individuals born with ambiguous genitalia will not receive a definitive diagnosis. Androgen receptor (AR) gene mutations cannot be found in 27% to 72% of individuals with PAIS. As a result, genetic analysis can be used to confirm a diagnosis of PAIS, but it cannot be used to rule out PAIS. Evidence of abnormal androgen binding in a genital skin fibroblast study has long been the gold standard for the diagnosis of PAIS, even when an AR mutation is not present. However, some cases of PAIS, including AR-mutant-positive cases, will show normal androgen binding. A family history consistent with X-linked inheritance is more commonly found in AR-mutant-positive cases than AR-mutant-negative cases.

The use of dynamic endocrine tests is particularly helpful in isolating a diagnosis of PAIS. One such test is the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) stimulation test. If the gonads are testes, there will be an increase in the level of serum testosterone in response to the hCG, regardless of testicular descent. The magnitude of the testosterone increase can help differentiate between androgen resistance and gonadal dysgenesis, as does evidence of a uterus on ultrasound examination. Testicular function can also be assessed by measuring serum anti-Müllerian hormone levels, which in turn can further differentiate PAIS from gonadal dysgenesis and bilateral anorchia.

Another useful dynamic test involves measuring the response to exogenous steroids; individuals with AIS show a decreased response in serum sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) after a short term administration of anabolic steroids. Two studies indicate that measuring the response in SHBG after the administration of stanozolol could help to differentiate individuals with PAIS from those with other causes of ambiguous genitalia, although the response in individuals with predominantly male phenotypes overlaps somewhat with the response in normal males.

The basic tests performed when an immunodeficiency is suspected should include a full blood count (including accurate lymphocyte and granulocyte counts) and immunoglobulin levels (the three most important types of antibodies: IgG, IgA and IgM).

Other tests are performed depending on the suspected disorder:

- Quantification of the different types of mononuclear cells in the blood (i.e. lymphocytes and monocytes): different groups of T lymphocytes (dependent on their cell surface markers, e.g. CD4+, CD8+, CD3+, TCRαβ and TCRγδ), groups of B lymphocytes (CD19, CD20, CD21 and Immunoglobulin), natural killer cells and monocytes (CD15+), as well as activation markers (HLA-DR, CD25, CD80 (B cells).

- Tests for T cell function: skin tests for delayed-type hypersensitivity, cell responses to mitogens and allogeneic cells, cytokine production by cells

- Tests for B cell function: antibodies to routine immunisations and commonly acquired infections, quantification of IgG subclasses

- Tests for phagocyte function: reduction of nitro blue tetrazolium chloride, assays of chemotaxis, bactericidal activity.

Due to the rarity of many primary immunodeficiencies, many of the above tests are highly specialised and tend to be performed in research laboratories.

Criteria for diagnosis were agreed in 1999. For instance, an antibody deficiency can be diagnosed in the presence of low immunoglobulins, recurrent infections and failure of the development of antibodies on exposure to antigens. The 1999 criteria also distinguish between "definitive", "probable" and "possible" in the diagnosis of primary immunodeficiency. "Definitive" diagnosis is made when it is likely that in 20 years, the patient has a >98% chance of the same diagnosis being made; this level of diagnosis is achievable with the detection of a genetic mutation or very specific circumstantial abnormalities. "Probable" diagnosis is made when no genetic diagnosis can be made, but the patient has all other characteristics of a particular disease; the chance of the same diagnosis being made 20 years later is estimated to be 85-97%. Finally, a "possible" diagnosis is made when the patient has only some of the characteristics of a disease are present, but not all.

Although advancement has been slow to come during the decades of research dedicated to the galactosemic cataract, some notable additions have been made. In 2006, Michael L. Mulhern and colleagues further investigated the effects of the osmotic swelling on galactosemic cataract development. Experiments were based on systematic observation of rats fed a 50% galactose diet. According to Mulhern, 7 to 9 days after the onset of the galactose diet, lenses appeared hydrated and highly vacuolated. Lens fibers became liquefied after nine days of the diet, and nuclear cataract formation appeared after 15 days of the diet.

The experiment concluded that

Apoptosis in lens epithelial cells (LEC) is linked to cataract formation. Essentially, the study suggested that the mechanism outlined by Friedenwald and Kinoshita, which centers on osmotic swelling of the lens fibers, is just the beginning in a cascade of events that causes and progresses the galactosemic cataract. Mulhern determined that osmotic swelling is actually a cataractogenic stressor that leads to LEC apoptosis. This is because osmotic swelling of lens fibers considerably strains LEC endoplasmic reticula. As the endoplasmic reticulum is the principal site of protein synthesis, stressors on the ER can cause proteins to become misfolded. The subsequent accumulation of misfolded proteins in the ER activates the unfolded protein response (UPR) in LECs. In agreement, it was later observed on galactosemic yeast models, the activation of UPR upon galactose treatment. UPR initiates apoptosis, or cell death, by various mechanisms, one of which is the release of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Thus, according to recent findings, osmotic swelling, UPR, oxidative damage, and the resultant LEC apoptosis all play key roles in the onset and progression of the galactosemic cataract. Other studies claim that the oxidative damage in LECs is less a result of the release of ROS and more because of the competition between aldose reductase and glutathione reductase for nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). Aldose reductase requires NADPH for the reduction of galactose to galactitol, while glutathione reductase utilizes NADPH to reduce glutathione disulfide (GSSG) to its sulfhydryl form, GSH. GSH is an important cellular antioxidant. Therefore, what exactly the key roles are for these cataractogenic factors is not yet fully understood or agreed upon by researchers.

A 2006 study followed 223 patients for a number of years. Of these, 15 died, with a median age of 65 years. The authors tentatively concluded that this is in line with a previously reported estimate of a shortened life expectancy of 10-15 years (12 in their data).

Management of AIS is currently limited to symptomatic management; methods to correct a malfunctioning androgen receptor protein that result from an AR gene mutation are not currently available. Areas of management include sex assignment, genitoplasty, gonadectomy in relation to tumor risk, hormone replacement therapy, and genetic and psychological counseling.

Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD or PIGD) refers to genetic profiling of embryos prior to implantation (as a form of embryo profiling), and sometimes even of oocytes prior to fertilization. When used to screen for a specific genetic sequence, its main advantage is that it avoids selective pregnancy termination, as the method makes it highly likely that a selected embryo will be free of the condition under consideration.

In the UK, AIS appears on a list of serious genetic diseases that may be screened for via PGD. Some ethicists, clinicians, and intersex advocates have argued that screening embryos to specifically exclude intersex traits are based on social and cultural norms as opposed to medical necessity.

5α-Reductase is an enzyme that converts testosterone to 5α-dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in peripheral tissues. These enzymes also participate in the creation of such neurosteroids as allopregnanolone and THDOC, convert progesterone into dihydroprogesterone (DHP), and convert deoxycorticosterone (DOC) into dihydrodeoxycorticosterone (DHDOC). 5-ARD is biochemically characterized by low to low-normal levels of testosterone and decreased levels of DHT, creating a higher testosterone/DHT ratio.

DHT is a potent androgen, and is necessary for the development of male external genitalia in utero.